NEET Chemistry Syllabus 2023
NEET 2023 Chemistry Syllabus
The NEET Class 11 and 12 Syllabus for Chemistry comprises the Inorganic Chemistry, Physical Chemistry, and Organic Chemistry sections. Mechanisms, chemical reactions, chain reactions, and compositions make up the fundamentals of Chemistry, which is regarded as scoring portions. It has frequently been observed that NEET questions are framed directly from NCERT textbooks. Furthermore, past years’ papers show that students are tested in the Chemistry sections using the same type of questions of varying levels of complexity.
Before beginning to prepare for the NEET, it is highly advisable that you thoroughly review and comprehend the concepts covered in the NEET Chemistry Syllabus. The Chemistry section is relatively easy for most NEET applicants. Nonetheless, certain complex, difficult questions arose that necessitated a firm grasp of the fundamentals. Preparing for NEET Chemistry Syllabus based on NEET question paper analysis is a more efficient way to get started. We have compiled a comprehensive list of all the concepts covered in the NEET Chemistry syllabus.
NEET Chemistry Syllabus Analysis
Chemistry Sections | Questions Breakup |
Inorganic Chemistry | 19 |
Organic Chemistry | 15 |
Physical Chemistry | 16 |
Physical Chemistry | |
Chapter | No. of Questions |
Solid state | 2 |
States of matter | 2 |
Thermodynamics | 1 |
Electrochemistry | 2 |
Surface chemistry | 1 |
Solutions | 2 |
Chemical Kinetics | 2 |
Nuclear Chemistry | 1 |
Mole concept | 1 |
Atomic structure | 1 |
Ionic equilibrium | 1 |
Inorganic Chemistry | |
Chapter | No. of Questions |
Chemical Bonding | 5 |
s-block | 2 |
p-block | 3 |
d and f block | 2 |
Metallurgy | 2 |
Environmental chemistry | 1 |
Coordination chemistry | 2 |
Organic Chemistry | |
Chapter | No. of Questions |
Some basic principles and techniques | 1 |
Hydrocarbons | 4 |
Haloalkanes and Haloarenes | 2 |
Alcohol, Phenol and Ether | 1 |
Carbonyl compound | 3 |
Amine | 2 |
Biomolecules | 1 |
Polymers | 1 |
Chemistry in Everyday Life | 1 |
The table below provides insights into analysis from the NEET 2020 Chemistry section; take a look.
Class | Chemistry Section | Weightage (approximate) |
11 | Inorganic Chemistry | 13% |
Organic Chemistry | 11% | |
Physical Chemistry | 22% | |
12 | Inorganic Chemistry | 16% |
Organic Chemistry | 22% | |
Physical Chemistry | 16% |
Tips: How to Prepare NEET 2023 Chemistry Syllabus
Analyse all the topics covered in the NEET Chemistry Syllabus and create an appropriate study approach. To get a handle on the fundamental principles, start with NCERT textbooks. Most importantly, only use NCERT textbooks to study Inorganic Chemistry because it is fact-based and does not contain any out-of-syllabus material. Examine the past years’ question papers to understand the exam format well. Regularly revise all the important concepts because the NEET Chemistry Syllabus contains hundreds of chemical compositions, formulae, and reactions; success in the exam requires a consistent and systematic approach.
When it comes to online learning, Extramarks are pioneers. Our videos are interactive and interesting, making it easy for students to grasp difficult subjects. NEET Chemistry may be a breeze with our videos, expert mentorship, and preparation tips. Stay tuned with Extramarks to know more about NEET eligibility criteria, sample papers, exam patterns, and more.
LIST OF ABBREVIATIONS
AACCC | AYUSH Admission Central Counselling Committee |
AFMC | Armed Forces Medical College |
AIIMS | All India Institute of Medical Sciences |
AMU | Aligarh Muslim University |
BAMS | Bachelor of Ayurvedic Medicine & Surgery |
BDS | Bachelor of Dental Surgery |
BHMS | Bachelor of Homeopathic Medicine & Surgery |
BHU | Banaras Hindu University |
BoGCCH | Board of Governors of Central Council of Homeopathy |
BSMS | Bachelor of Siddha Medicine & Surgery |
BUMS | Bachelor of Unani Medicine & Surgery |
CCIM | Central Council of Indian Medicine |
DCI | Dental Council of India |
DGHS | Directorate General of Health Services |
DU | Delhi University |
ESIC | Employees’ State Insurance Corporation |
EWS | Economically Weaker Section |
GGSIPU | Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University |
INI | Institute of National Importance |
JIPMER | Jawaharlal Nehru Institute of Medical Education & Research |
MBBS | Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery |
MCC | Medical Counselling Committee |
MCI | Medical Council of India |
MoH&FW | Ministry of Health and Family Welfare |
MoA | Ministry of Ayush |
NCISM | National Commission for Indian System of Medicine |
NCH | National Commission for Homoeopathy |
NEET (UG) | National Eligibility Cum Entrance Test for admission to Undergraduate Course |
NMC | National Medical Commission |
OBC-NCL | Other Backward Classes-Non Creamy Layer |
PwBD | Persons with Benchmark Disabilities |
RPwD | The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 |
SC | Scheduled Castes |
ST | Scheduled Tribes |
UoI | Union of India |
UT | Union Territory |
INDEX
Chapter 1: Introduction………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 10
1.1 About National Testing Agency (NTA) 10
Chapter 2: National Eligibility-Cum-Entrance Test NEET(UG) – 2022………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 11
- About NEET (UG) 11
- NEET (UG) – 2022 and Role of NTA 11
- Disclaimer 11
- Related Ministries / Departments / Bodies / Regulations / Websites 12
- Syllabus of the Test 14
- Pattern of the Test……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 14
- Mode of Examination 15
- Duration of Test 15
- Medium of the Question Papers 15
Chapter 4: Cities for NEET (UG) – 2022………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 17
4.1 Cities for Exam Centres for NEET (UG) – 2022 Examination 17
Chapter 5: Eligibility and Qualifications for MBBS and BDS Course………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 18
- Eligibility to appear in NEET (UG) – 2022 18
- Criteria for NRI / OCI / Foreign Nationals 18
- Participation of UT of J&K Ladakh in All India Quota 19
- Qualifications and Qualifying Examination Codes 19
Chapter 6: Counselling and Reservation for Admission to MBBS and BDS Course………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 23
- Admission Procedure………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 23
- Reservation Policy for Admission to MBBS and BDS Course………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 25
- Provisions relating to Persons with Disability (PwD)………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 27
- Facilities for PwD candidates to appear in the exam………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 27
- Services of a Scribe………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 27
- Reservation in Central Institutes / Universities………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 28
- Guidelines for PwD Candidates 29
- Instructions for Counselling by the MCC for MBBS and BDS Admission………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 30
Chapter 7: General Instructions and Submission of Application Form/Payment of Fee32
- General Instructions………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 32
- Readiness for filling up Application Form………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 33
Chapter 8:Particulars to be filled in the Online Application Form………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 39
Chapter 9:Admit Card………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 42
Chapter 10:Barred Items and Dress Code………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 43
10.1 Barred Items 43
Chapter 11: Information for Parents/Guardians………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 44
Chapter 12:Instructions to be followed in the Examination Hall………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 45
Chapter 13:Unfairmeans Practices and Breach of Examination Rules………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 47
- Definition………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 47
- Punishment for using Unfairmeans practices………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 48
- Cancellation of Result………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 48
Chapter 14: Post Examination Activities and Declaration of Result………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 49
- Display of OMR sheets and responses on the website and challenging the grading of questions on OMR 49
- Display of Answer Key for the challenge………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 49
Chapter 15:Merit List and Qualifying Criteria………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 51
15.1 Qualifying Criteria 51
Chapter 16:Eligibility Criteria/Quota of Seats/Reservation/Result Criteria/ Counselling for Admission to BAMS/BSMS/BUMS/BHMS Courses………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 54
16.1 Admission to all seats of BAMS, BSMS, BUMS, and BHMS Courses through NEET (UG) – 2022* 54
Chapter 17:Miscellaneous Provisions………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 57
- Caution Notice………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 57
- Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA)………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 57
- Common Services Centres/Facilitation Centres………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 58
- Weeding out Rules………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 58
- Legal Jurisdiction………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 58
Appendix-I………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 59
The National Medical Commission Act (2019)…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 59
Appendix II………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 60
Self-Declaration Proforma for Candidates belonging to UT of J&K…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 60
Appendix III………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 61
State Medical Education Directorates & Offices where Counselling related information is available…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 61
Appendix-IV………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 64
Core Syllabus…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 64
Appendix –V………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 77
Details of Medical/Dental/Ayurveda/Siddha/Unani/Homeopathy Colleges…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 77
Appendix-VI………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 78
State/Union Territory Wise List of Examination Cities for National Eligibility Cum Entrance Test (UG) – 2022 78
Appendix –VII………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 91
Graduate Medical Education Regulations…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 91
Appendix-VIII………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 94
List of Centres for Disability Certificates…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 94
Appendix-IXA: EWS Certificate………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 96
Government of………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 96
Income and Asset Certificate to be produced by Economically Weaker Sections…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 96
Appendix – IXB: Declaration by the Candidate in lieu of Gen-Ews Certificate………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 97
Appendix –XA: OBC-NCL Certificate Format………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 98
Appendix – XB: Declaration by the Candidate in lieu of OBC-NCL Certificate…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 100
Appendix –XI: SC/ST Certificate Format…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 101
Appendix –XII: Form-PwD (II) Disability Certificate…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 102
Appendix –XIII: Form-PwD (III) Disability Certificate…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 103
(In cases of multiple disabilities)………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 103
(NAME AND ADDRESS OF THE MEDICAL AUTHORITY ISSUING THE CERTIFICATE)………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 103
Appendix –XIV: Form-PwD (IV) Disability Certificate…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 105
(In cases other than those mentioned in Forms II and III)………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 105
(NAME AND ADDRESS OF THE MEDICAL AUTHORITY ISSUING THE CERTIFICATE)………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 105
Appendix –XV: Form-DYSLEXIC-1- Format of Medical Certificate/Report to be produced by Dyslexic Candidate………………………………………………………………………………………………. 107
Appendix –XVI: FORM-DYSLEXIC-2*-Certificate to be produced by
Dyslexic Candidate from the Principal of the School/College last attended………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 108
Appendix -XVII : List of Codes of Class 12 Education Boards…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 109
Appendix –XVIII: List of Code of Occupation, Qualification & Income (For Father’s/ Guardian’s/ Mother’s) of NEET (UG) – 2022………………………………………………………………………………………………. 110
Appendix – XIX: Affidavit for Single Girl Child…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 111
Appendix – XX: Self-Declaration by Minority Community Candidate for support from Government Scheme………………………………………………………………………………………………. 112
Appendix-XXI A: Embassy Certificate of Foreign Candidate (For NRI Candidates)…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 113
Appendix-XXI B: *Documentary Proof of Citizenship…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 114
(For Foreign and OCI Candidates)………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 114
Appendix-XXII: Procedure for Online Payment of Fee and Helpline for
Payment Related Queries………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 115
Appendix-XXIII:Sample of images to upload in Online Application Form…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 118
Appendix-XXIV: Replica of Application Form…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 120
Important Points to Note…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 133
IMPORTANT INFORMATION AND DATES AT A GLANCE
(Please refer to Information Bulletin for details) Important Dates and Fee Detail:
Online Submission of Application Form | 06 April 2022 to 06 May 2022
(up to 11:50 PM) |
||
Last date of successful transaction of fee through
Credit/Debit Card/Net-Banking/UPI / Paytm |
07 May 2022
(up to 11:50 PM) |
||
Correction in Particulars | To be intimated later on the website | ||
Fee Payable by Candidate | Category of Candidate | In India (Fee in ₹) | Outside India (Fee in ₹) |
General | ₹ 1600/- | ₹ 8500/- | |
General-EWS/ OBC-NCL* | ₹ 1500/- | ||
SC/ST/PwBD/Third Gender | ₹ 900/- | ||
Processing charges & Goods and Services Tax (GST) are to be paid by the candidate,
as applicable |
|||
Announcement of the City of Examination | To be intimated later on the website | ||
Downloading of Admit Cards from the NTA
website |
To be intimated later on the website | ||
Date of Examination | 17 July 2022 (Sunday) | ||
Duration of Examination | 200 minutes (03 hours 20 Minutes) | ||
Timing of Examination | 02:00 PM to 05:20 PM (IST) | ||
Centre, Date, and Shift of NEET (UG) – 2022
Examination |
As indicated on Admit Card | ||
Display of Recorded Responses and Answer Keys | To be announced later on the website | ||
Website(s) | www.nta.ac.in , https://neet.nta.nic.in/ | ||
Declaration of Result on NTA website | To be announced later on the website |
OBC-NCL (Other Backward Classes)-NCL (Non-Creamy Layer) as per the Central List of Other Backward Classes available on the National Commission for Backward Classes. The candidates falling in this list (available on http://www.ncbc.nic.in/ ) may mention OBC-NCL in the Category Column. State-listed OBC-NCL Candidates who are not in OBC-NCL (Central List) must choose General.
- Candidates can apply for NEET (UG) – 2022 through the “Online” mode only through the website https://neet.nta.nic.in/.
- Submission of the Online Application Form may be done by accessing the NTA website https://neet.nta.nic.in/. The Application Form in any other mode will not be
3. Only one application is to be submitted by a candidate.
- Candidates must strictly follow the instructions given in the Information Bulletin and on the NTA Candidates not complying with the instructions shall be summarily disqualified.
- Candidates must ensure that the e-mail address and Mobile Number provided in the Online Application Form are their own or Parents/Guardians only as all information/ communication will be sent by NTA through e-mail on the registered e-mail address or SMS on the registered Mobile Number
- Instructions for filling Online Application Form:
- Download Information Bulletin and Replica of Application Form. Read these carefully to ensure your eligibility.
Follow the steps given below to Apply Online:
Step 1: Registration Form:
Register for the Online Application Form and note down the system-generated Application Number. The candidate should provide the required details while filling the Online Application Form. The candidate must also create a PASSWORD and choose Security Question and enter an Answer. After successful submission of the personal details, an Application number will be generated and it will be used to complete the remaining Steps of the Application Form and will also be required for all future reference/correspondence. For subsequent logins, the candidate will be able to login directly with the system- generated Application Number and Password created.
Step 2: Application Form:
The Candidates can log in with the system-generated Application Number and pre-created Password for completing the Application Form including filling up personal details, choosing the Question Paper medium and Examination Cities, providing the details of Educational Qualifications, and uploading the images and documents (if any).
Upload Scanned Images of Candidate’s recent Passport size Photograph, Postcard size Photograph, Signature, Left and Right hand Fingers and Thumb impression, Category Certificate (if applicable), Citizenship Certificate (if applicable), and PwD Certificate (wherever applicable):
- The recent photograph should be either in colour or black and white with 80% face (without mask) visible including ears against a white
- Scanned photographs, signature, and Left and Right hand Fingers and Thumb impressions should be in JPG format (clearly legible).
- Scanned Category Certificate (if applicable), Citizenship Certificate (if applicable), and PwD Certificate (wherever applicable) should be in pdf format (clearly legible).
- The size of the scanned passport photograph should be between 10 kb to 200 kb (clearly legible).
- The size of the scanned Postcard photograph (4”x6”) should be between 10 kb – 200 kb (clearly legible).
- The size of the scanned signature should be between 4 kb to 30 kb (clearly legible)
- The size of scanned and Left and Right hand Fingers and Thumb impressions as per the Template provided (Appendix-XXIV) should be between 10 kb to 200 kb.
- The size of the scanned copy of the Category certificate (SC/ST/OBC/EWS ) should be in pdf between 50kb to 300kb (clearly legible).
- The size of the scanned copy of the PwD certificate should be between 50 kb to 300 kb (clearly legible)
- The size of the scanned copy of Class 10 pass certificate should be between 50 kb to 300 kb
(clearly legible).
- The size of the scanned copy of the Citizenship certificate/Embassy certificate or any Documentary proof of Citizenship certificate should be between 50 kb to 300 kb (clearly legible).
Please check your photographs and signature before submission of the Application Form. In case the photograph or signature is blurred or not visible to identify the identity of the candidate then, the application will be rejected.
[Note: The Candidate has to upload only his/her own photograph, signature, Left and Right hand Fingers and Thumb impression, and certificate(s) as mentioned above (and not of anybody else) in a correct/proper manner. In case, it is found at any time in the future that the Candidate has used/uploaded the photographs, Left and Right hand Fingers and Thumb impression, signature, and certificate(s) of someone else in his/her Application Form/Admit Card, or he/she has tampered his/her Admit Card/Result/ScoreCard, these acts of the candidate shall be treated as Unfair Means (UFM) Practices and he/she shall be proceeded with the actions as contemplated under the provisions of the Information Bulletin relating to Unfair Means Practices.]
Step 3: Fee Payment:
After completing Step 1 and Step 2, the candidates have to pay the requisite examination fee. The fee can be submitted online only through Net Banking, Credit Card, Debit Card, UPI, or Paytm Services. Processing charges and GST as applicable are chargeable to the candidate (in addition to the examination fee) by the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway Integrator.
The Confirmation Page of the online Application Form will be generated only after successful payment by the Candidate. In case the Confirmation Page is not generated after payment of fee, then the candidate may have to approach the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway (in the helpline number and e-mail given in the Information Bulletin) for ensuring the successful payment or for obtaining the refund of dupliate/multiple payments].
- Download, save and print a copy of the Confirmation Page of the Application Form (which would be downloadable only after successful remittance of fee) for future
- All 3 Steps can be done together or at separate timings. The submission of the Application of a candidate could be considered successful and his/her candidature would be confirmed only on the successful transaction/receipt of the prescribed application fee from him/her.
- Candidates shall ensure that the information entered by them in their online Application Form is
8. All candidates must ensure that they have provided the correct e-mail address and mobile number. When Candidates register, they have to enter the OTP received at their registered Mobile Number, and before submitting the fees, they have to enter the OTP received at their registered e-mail address.
- A copy of the Confirmation Page, Scanned OMR, and Score Card of NEET (UG) – 2022 will be sent to the registered e-mail address of the
- Information provided by the candidates in their respective online Application Forms, like, as the name of the candidate, contact details, address details, category, PwD status, educational qualification details, date of birth, choice of exam cities, etc. will be treated as final. Any request for change in such particulars will not be considered by NTA under any
- NTA does not edit/modify/alter any information entered by the candidates after completion of the application process under any circumstances. Any request for change in information thereafter will not be Therefore, candidates are advised to exercise utmost caution before filling up the correct details in the Application Form.
- NTA disclaims any liability that may arise to a candidate(s) due to incorrect information provided by him/her in his/her online Application
- Candidates must ensure that their email address and mobile number to be registered in their online Application Form are their own, as relevant/important information/ communication will be sent by NTA through e-mail on the registered mail address and/or through SMS on the registered mobile number only. NTA shall not be responsible for any non-communication/miscommunication with a candidate in the email address or mobile number given by him/her other than his/her
- Candidates are also requested to download and install the ‘SANDES’ application as a secondary channel to receive time-to-time notifications from NTA
‘SANDES’ APP can be downloaded and installed on registered Mobile Device as follow:
- Visit the Google Play Store on your Mobile
- Search for the “Sandes App” in the search
- It then displays the app in the play
- Click on Install, and then the app gets downloaded to your
- Now, mobile users can enjoy the services of the Sandes Mobile
Candidates are advised to visit the NTA Website and check their e-mails regularly for the latest updates.
- Candidates shall appear at their own cost at the Examination Centre on the date, shift, and time indicated on their Admit Cards issued by the NTA in due course through its
16. Any request to change the Question Paper Medium, Examination Centre, Date, and Time provided on the Admit Card shall not be considered under any circumstances.
- Candidates are advised to take 6-8 Passport size and 4-6 Post Card size (4” X6”) coloured photographs with white The photographs are to be used for uploading an Online
Application Form, for examination, and also for Counselling/Admission. This is to ensure that the same photograph is used for all documents and all purposes related to NEET (UG) – 2022.
- All Candidates appearing in NEET (UG) – 2022 must regularly check updates on the website of NTA (https://neet.nta.nic.in/); MoH&FW (https://www.mohfw.gov.in/); AYUSH Ministry (ayush.gov.in); DGHS (https://dghs.gov.in/content/1344_1_MedicalEducation.aspx ); Medical Counselling Committee (https://mcc.nic.in/UGCounselling/); (Admission Central Counselling Committee of Ministry of AYUSH) https://aaccc.gov.in/aacccug/home/homepage and other concerned Authorities of participating States/Universities/Institutions, till the conclusion of the final round of Counselling.
- The information about the State of the respective candidate is only for the purpose of information and it does not mean that the candidate belongs to the domicile of that particular state as it needs to be reaffirmed from the DME of the respective
Note:
- All Candidates shall ensure that the information (like his/her name, mother’s name, father’s name, gender, date of birth, category, PwD status, mobile number, e-mail address, photographs, Left and Right hand Fingers and Thumb impression, and signature, choice of cities for exam Centre, etc.) provided by them in their online Application Form is correct and their own. Candidates are advised to exercise the utmost care in filling up correct details in the Online Application Any request for change in the particulars and uploaded scanned images at any stage will not be considered by NTA under any circumstances. NTA will not entertain the corrections sent by the candidate through Post/Fax/WhatsApp/E-mail/by Hand.
- In case it is found at any time in the future that the Candidate has used/uploaded the photograph, signature, and certificate(s) of someone else in his/ her Application Form/Admit Card or he/she has tampered with his/her Admit Card/result, it would be treated as Unfair Means (UFM) Practices on his/her part and the actions will be taken under the provisions of Unfair Means Practices, as detailed in the Information Bulletin.
3. Candidates are NOT allowed to carry Instruments, Geometry or Pencil box, Handbag, Purse, any kind of Paper/ Stationery/ Textual material (printed or written material), Eatables and Water (loose or packed), Mobile Phone/ Earphone/ Microphone/ Pager, Calculator, DocuPen, Slide Rules, Log Tables, Camera, Tape Recorder, Electronic Watches with facilities of calculator, any metallic item or electronic gadgets/ devices in the Examination Hall/Room.
- Candidates are requested to retain a copy of the Confirmation Page, Admit Card, and Score Card of the NEET (UG) – 2022 as the same will not be available after 30 September
Chapter 1: Introduction
1.1 About National Testing Agency (NTA)
The Ministry of Education (MoE), Government of India (GoI) has established the National Testing Agency (NTA) as an independent, autonomous, and self-sustained premier testing organization under the Societies Registration Act (1860) for conducting efficient, transparent, and international standardized tests in order to assess the competency of candidates for admission to premier higher education institutions with a mission to improve equity and quality in education by developing and administering research-based valid, reliable, efficient, transparent, fair and international level assessments.
NTA has created a system that is promoting teaching (by teachers), learning (by students), and assessment (by parents and institutions). NTA strongly believes in the quality, efficiency, effectiveness, equity, and security of assessments. To practice these values, NTA is constantly engaging with its stakeholders, viz. students, parents, teachers, experts, and partner institutions.
The objectives of NTA, inter alia, include:
- To conduct efficient, transparent, and international standardized tests in order to assess the competency of candidates for admission.
- To undertake research on educational, professional, and testing systems to identify gaps in the knowledge systems and take steps for bridging
- To produce and disseminate information and research on education and professional development
The National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test (NEET-UG) is being conducted by NTA since 2019 for admission to the undergraduate medical education, with the approval of the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare (vide O.M. no. V.11025/14/216-MEP dated 6th December 2017) and MHRD (vide Order No 35-5/2017-TS.I dated 24th September 2018).
Candidates at the NEET Examination Centre
Chapter 2: National Eligibility-Cum-Entrance Test NEET(UG) – 2022
2.1 About NEET (UG)
- The NEET (UG) is being conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA) since 2019 with the approval of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the Ministry of Human Resource Development (which is now known as the Ministry of Education), in pursuance of the direction of the Hon’ble Supreme Court of India vide Judgement dated 11. 2018 in C.A. No. 11230 of 2018 in the matter of CBSE Vs.
T.K. Rangarajan & Ors. (Para 22).
- As per Section 14 of The National Medical Commission Act, 2019 (Appendix-I), which has come into force on 24th September 2020, NEET (UG) has to be conducted as a common and uniform National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test (NEET) for admission to the undergraduate medical education in all medical institutions, including those governed under any other law in force.
- The Constitutional validity of this Act has been upheld by the Hon’ble Apex Court vide its Judgement dated 29 April 2020 in the matter of Christian Medical College Vellore Association vs. UOI & Ors., while disposing of the transferred Case (Civil) 98 of 2021 & connected Transferred Cases, Writ Petitions & SLP.
- NEET (UG) has been a qualifying entrance exam since 2020 for admission to the MBBS/BDS courses in AIIMS and JIPMER (although such Medical Institutions are governed under separate Statutes), as per the proviso under Section 14 (1) of the NMC Act (2019).
- The norms/procedure/timelines followed in conducting NEET (UG) are as provided under Section 10 D of the Indian Medical Council Act and the relevant Regulations on Graduate Medical Education as notified under Section 33 of the said Act from time to time and as per Section 14 of the NMC Act (2019) since 2020.2.1.6 Similar provisions for admission to the BDS course are contained under the Dentists Act, 1948 and Regulations made
2.2 NEET (UG) – 2022 and Role of NTA
- The NEET (UG) – 2022 is going to be conducted by NTA as per the Schedule given in the Information at a Glance for admission to MBBS, BDS, BAMS, BSMS, BUMS, and BHMS Courses as per the relevant norms/guidelines/regulations notified by the concerned Regulatory Bodies.
- The official website of the NTA for NEET (UG) – 2022 is https://neet.nta.nic.in/ All the test-related information, as amended from time to time (if any), will be available on this website only. Candidates must regularly visit this website for the latest
2.3 Disclaimer
- The responsibility of NTA is limited to inviting online applications, the conduct of the entrance test, declaration of the result, and providing All India Rank (AIR) to the Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India.
2.3.2. The information contained in this Information Bulletin relating to the pattern of exam, syllabus, eligibility criteria for appearing in NEET (UG), the quota of seats, reservation, PWBD, admission norms /procedure pertaining to the concerned courses are as per the norms set out by the respective Regulatory Bodies.
- The Result and All India Rank of NEET (UG) will be prepared/notified by NTA as per the norms/criteria fixed by the NMC/DGHS (for MBBS/BDS) and by CCIM (for BAMS/BSMS/ BUMS) and by CCH (for BHMS).
2.3.4. Hence, in case of any doubt/ dispute, the Information in respect of the above- mentioned subject matters, as provided in the respective regulations/notifications of the concerned Regulatory Bodies, shall be considered authentic and final.
- Notwithstanding anything contained in the Information Bulletin, the decision of NTA/MoH&FW/NMC/MCI/DGHS/DCI/MoA/CCIM/BoGCCH shall be final and
- All disputes pertaining to the conduct of examination and allotment of seats shall fall within the jurisdiction of Delhi only.
2.4 Related Ministries / Departments / Bodies / Regulations / Websites
S.
No. |
MINISTRY | BODIES | Regulations | WEBSITE | PURPOSE |
1. | Ministry of Health & Family Welfare of Central Government (www.mohfw.gov.in) & Department of Medical Education of State Governments / UTs | NMC | Graduate Medical Education Regulations (1997), as amended from time to time
(https://www.nmc.or g.in/rules- regulations/graduate- medical-education- regulations-1997) (https://www.nmc.or |
www.nmc.org | For information relating to the Regulations on Graduate Medical Education (MBBS and NEET). |
DCI | BDS COURSE REGULATIONS
(2007), as amended from time to time. |
www.dciindia | For information relating to BDS Course and Regulations for
admission to BDS. |
||
DGHS | Directorate General of Health Services | www.dghs.go v.in | For information relating to quota, admission, and counselling-related
policy matters. |
||
MCC of DGHS | Counselling Scheme for NEET (UG) | https://mcc.ni | For information
relating to counselling dates/procedures etc. |
under 15% All IndiaQuota of Seats for MBBS / BDS | |||||
Counselling Authority of respective State Government s / UTs | Guidelines issued by the respective Directorate of Medical Education | Please see Appendix-IV relating to the contact details of the Medical Counselling Committee of the Directorate of Medical Education of the respective
State Government. |
For information relating to counseling dates/procedures etc. for State Quota Seats for MBBS / BDS | ||
S.
No. |
MINISTRY | BODIES | Regulations | WEBSITE | PURPOSE |
2. | Ministry of AYUSH (www.ayush.gov.in) | Central Council of Indian Medicine (CCIM) | Indian Medicine
Central Council (Minimum Standards of Education in Indian Medicine) Amendment Regulations (2018) |
www.ccimind ia.org; chairman@nc ismindia.org secretary@nci smindia.org; regn@ccimin dia.org; evidya@ccim india.org; | For information relating to BAMS, BSMS & BUMS
Courses and Regulations relating to them. |
Central Council of Homeopathy (CCH) | Homoeopathy (Degree Course) Amendment Regulations (2018) | www.cchindi a.com anilnaman@r ediffmail.com | For information relating to BHMS Course and
Regulations relating to it. |
||
AYUSH
Admissions Central Counseling Committee (AACCC) |
Guidelines issued by the Ministry of AYUSH for the AYUSH Admissions Central Counselling Committee | https://aaccc.g ov.in/aacccug | For information relating to counselling dates/procedures etc. under Central Quota of Seats for BAMS,
BSMS, BUMS & BHMS. |
||
AYUSH
Admissions Counselling Committee of the Directorate of AYUSH of respective State Government s and UTs |
Guidelines issued by the Directorate of AYUSH for the AYUSH Counselling Committee of respective State Governments / UTs. | The website of the Directorate of AYUSH of
respective State Governments and UTs may be referred to. |
For information relating to counselling dates/procedures etc. under State Quota of Seats for BAMS, BSMS, BUMS & BHMS. | ||
3. | Ministry of Education (MoE), Department of Higher Education (TS-1) Section (https://www.educatio n.gov.in/en/higher_ed | National Testing Agency (NTA) | Information Bulletins issued by NTA for the Exams conducted by
it. |
www.nta.ac.i n | For information about NTA and the exams conducted by it. |
Information Bulletin of NEET (UG) | https://neet.nt a.nic.in// | Information relating to NEET (UG) |
Chapter 3: Examination Scheme
3.1 Syllabus of the Test
NMC (National Medical Commission) has notified the syllabus of NEET (UG) – 2022. The Question Paper will be based on the given syllabus (Appendix-IV) which is available on the NMC website (https://www.nmc.org.in/neet/neet-ug). Furthermore, to rationalize the decision of reduction in the syllabus by various School Education Boards, the NTA has taken a decision to provide choice in Section “B” for each of the 4 (four) Subjects.
3.2 Pattern of the Test
The Test pattern of NEET (UG) – 2022 comprises four Subjects. Each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15 Questions, out of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions. So, the total number of questions and utilization of time will remain the same.
The pattern for the NEET (UG) – 2022 Examination for admission in the Session 2022-23 is as follows:
S. No |
Subject(s) |
Section(s) |
Number Of
Question (s) |
Marks*
*(Each Question carries 04 (Four) Marks) |
Type Of Question(s) |
1. | PHYSICS | SECTION A | 35 | 140 | MCQ
(Multiple Choice Questions). |
SECTION B | 15 | 40 | |||
2. |
CHEMISTRY |
SECTION A | 35 | 140 | |
SECTION B | 15 | 40 | |||
3. |
BOTANY |
SECTION A | 35 | 140 | |
SECTION B | 15 | 40 | |||
4. |
ZOOLOGY |
SECTION A | 35 | 140 | |
SECTION B | 15 | 40 | |||
TOTAL MARKS | 720 | ||||
Note: Correct option marked will be given (4) marks and Incorrect option marked will be minus one (-1) mark. Unattempted/Unanswered Questions will be given no marks. |
Important Points to Note:
- For Section A (MCQs): To answer a question, the candidates need to choose one option corresponding to the correct answer or the most appropriate However, if any anomaly or discrepancy is found after the process of challenges of the key verification, it shall be addressed in the following manner:
- Correct answer or the most appropriate answer: Four marks (+4)
- Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1).
- Unanswered/Marked for Review will be given no mark (0).
- If more than one option is found to be correct then Four marks (+4) will be awarded to only those who have marked any of the correct options.
- If all options are found to be correct then Four marks (+4) will be awarded to all those who have attempted the
- If none of the options is found correct or a Question is found to be wrong or a Question is dropped then all candidates who have appeared will be given four marks (+4) irrespective of the fact whether the question has been attempted or not attempted by the
- For Section B (MCQs): Candidates need to attempt any 10 Questions out of 15 Questions In the event of a candidate has attempted more than 10 questions, only the first 10 attempted questions will be considered for evaluation. There will also be negative marking for Section B. However, if any anomaly or discrepancy is found after the process of challenges of the key verification, it shall be addressed in the following manner:
- Correct Answer: Four marks (+4)
- Incorrect Answer: Minus one mark (-1)
- Unanswered/Marked for Review: No mark (0).
- If more than one option is found to be correct then Four marks (+4) will be awarded to only those who have marked any of the correct options.
- If all options are found to be correct then Four marks (+4) will be awarded to all those who have attempted the question.
- If a question is found to be incorrect or the Question is dropped then Four marks (+4) will be awarded to all those who have attempted the question. The reason could be due to human error or technical error.
- Candidates are advised to do the calculations with the constants given (if any) in the
3.3 Mode of Examination
NEET (UG) – 2022 is a Pen & Paper-based Test, to be answered on the specially designed machine gradable OMR sheet using Ball Point Pen provided at the Centre. Moreover tampering with the OMR at any stage will lead to debarring of the candidature for 3 years.
3.4 Duration of Test
The duration of the test would be three (03) hours and 20 minutes.
3.5 Medium of the Question Papers:
3.5.1. Candidates can opt for a Question Paper in any one of the following 13 languages:
English | Hindi | Assamese | Bengali | Gujarati | Malayalam | Kannada |
Marathi | Odia | Tamil | Telugu | Urdu | Punjabi |
- Option of medium of Question Paper should be carefully chosen while filling in the Application The option once chosen cannot be changed.
- Candidates opting for English would be provided Test Booklet in English
- Candidates opting for Hindi would be provided with a Bilingual Test Booklet in English and
- Candidates opting for Regional languages would also be provided with a Bilingual Test Booklet in selected Regional language and English.
- In case of any ambiguity in the translation of a question in the test, its English version shall be treated as final and the decision of NTA shall be final in this
- Candidates qualifying for NEET (UG) – 2022 would be eligible for All India Quota and other quotas under the State Governments/Institutes, irrespective of the medium of the examination, subject to other eligibility criteria.
- Option of Regional languages will be available as per the following table only: –
S.
No. |
Medium of Question
Paper |
Examination Centres |
1. | English | All Examination Centres |
2. | English and Hindi | All Examination Centres in India |
3. | English and Assamese | Examination Centres in Assam |
4. | English and Bengali | Examination Centres in West Bengal, Tripura,
and Andaman & Nicobar Islands |
5. | English and Gujarati | Examination Centres in Gujarat, Daman &
Diu, Dadra & Nagar Haveli |
6. | English and Kannada | Examination Centres in Karnataka |
7. | English and Malayalam | Examination Centres in Kerala and
Lakshadweep |
8. | English and Marathi | Examination Centres in Maharashtra |
9. | English and Odia | Examination Centres in Odisha |
10. | English and Punjabi | Examination Centres in Punjab, Chandigarh, and Delhi/New Delhi (including Faridabad, Ghaziabad, Gurugram, Meerut, Noida/Greater
Noida) |
11. | English and Tamil | Examination Centres in Tamil Nadu,
Puducherry, and Andaman & Nicobar Islands |
12. | English and Telugu | Examination Centres in Andhra Pradesh and
Telangana |
13. | English and Urdu | All Examination Centres in India |
The option of language for Question Paper should be exercised while filling up the Application Form online and it cannot be changed at a later stage. Please note that for the correctness of the questions in all the question papers, the English version will be taken as final.
Chapter 4: Cities for NEET (UG) – 2022
4.1 Cities for Exam Centres for NEET (UG) – 2022 Examination
A list of Cities along with city codes where the NEET (UG) – 2022 will be conducted is given in Appendix VI.
While filling up the Online Application Form, candidates should select four Convenient Cities from Appendix VI as their Choice of Cities for the exam Centre in order of their priority.
Choice of Centre Cities will be limited to the State of Permanent Address or State of Present Address only.
For convenience, the candidates may select their own city or neighbouring cities in their State of Residence only and not for far away cities in other States. NTA will not be responsible for any inconvenience due to the incorrect selection of cities by the candidates.
In case, the number of candidates opting for a city is less than a certain minimum, the NTA reserves the right to merge one, two, or more cities.
In case, the number of candidates opting for a city as centre with a regional language is less than a certain minimum, candidates may be allotted Centre in another city irrespective of the city opted by the candidates for appearing in the examination.
Though every effort will be made to allot a Centre in one of the cities selected by the candidate, the NTA reserves the right to allot a centre in a city other than the candidate’s choice.
Allotment of Centres will be done mostly in one of the preferred cities of the candidates and there will be no human intervention.
Note: All effort will be made by NTA to consider the comfort and convenience of candidates, including PwBD Candidates while allotting Centres.
Chapter 5: Eligibility and Qualifications for MBBS and BDS Course
5.1 Eligibility to appear in NEET (UG) – 2022
Eligibility for appearing in NEET (UG), as per related Regulations of NMC and DCI are as follows:-
- He/she has completed 17 years of age at the time of admission or will complete that age on or before 31 December of the year of his/her admission to the first year of the Undergraduate Medical
Accordingly, the lower age limit shall be as under:
For Candidates of General (UR)/General-EWS | born on or before 31.12.2005 |
For Candidates of SC/ST/OBC-NCL/PwBD
Category |
- Upper age limit: As per Letter No. U-11022/2/2022-UGMEB, dated 09 March 2022 received from National Medical Commission (NMC), Under Graduate Medical Education Board (UGMEB) regarding the upper age limit, that there should be no upper age limit as decided in the fourth NMC meeting held on 21 October
- Indian Citizens/ Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) intending to pursue Undergraduate Medical Courses in a foreign Medical/ Dental Institute also need to qualify for NEET (UG).
5.2 Criteria for NRI / OCI / Foreign Nationals
- Non-Resident Indians (NRIs), Overseas Citizens of India (OCI), and Foreign Nationals are eligible for admission in Medical /Dental Colleges subject to rules and regulations framed by the respective State Governments, Institutions, and the Government of India, as the case may be. The NRI and OCI Applicants/Candidates have to upload a Certificate from the concerned Indian Diplomatic Mission in the country of their residence in support of their claim as an NRI/OCI Candidate, along with their online Application Form for NEET (UG)
– 2022 and retain the original of such document for producing it at the time of Counselling
/ Admission to the Courses covered under NEET (UG). Similarly, a foreign applicant for NEET (UG) 2022 shall also upload Documentary Proof (e.g. relevant pages of a valid passport or a Certificate from the Competent Authority in the country of his/her nationality regarding his/her citizenship status) in support of his/her Nationality, along with online Application Form. The Embassy Certificate and Citizenship Certificate or any Documentary proof of Citizenship are given in Annexures – XIV A and XIV B. Foreign nationals may confirm their eligibility from the concerned Medical/Dental/ College/State.
5.2.2 Eligibility of OCI cardholders for NEET (UG):
The Ministry of Home Affairs vide Notification dated 4 March 2021 specified the rights to which an OCI cardholder shall be entitled under the Citizenship Act, 1955.
Clause (4) (ii) of the said Notification reads as under:
“(4) parity with Non-Resident Indians in the matter of,-
(ii) appearing for the all India entrance tests such as National Eligibility cum Entrance Test, Joint Entrance Examination (Mains), Joint Entrance Examination (Advanced), or such other
tests to make them eligible for admission only against any Non-Resident Indian seat or any supernumerary seat:
Provided that the OCI cardholder shall not be eligible for admission against any seat reserved exclusively for Indian citizens.”
The above Notification provides the following Explanation:
“The OCI Cardholder (including a PIO card holder) is a foreign national holding passport of a foreign country and is not a citizen of India.”
Similarly, the PIO cardholder and foreign nationals shall not be eligible for admission against any seat reserved exclusively for Indian citizens.
5.3 Participation of UT of J&K Ladakh in All India Quota
- Students from UT of J&K and Ladakh were not eligible for 15% All India Quota seats as erstwhile J&K opted out of the All India Scheme since its inception. So far as the UT of J&K is concerned, the matter for inclusion of the UT in the All India Quota is under deliberation and any decision in this regard shall be placed on the website of NTA in due course. Hence, the candidates from J&K qualifying NEET (UG)-2022 shall not be entitled to participate in the counselling conducted by MCC/DGHS for admission to the MBBS / BDS seats under the All India 15% However, depending upon their marks/ score, they would be able to participate in the counselling conducted by the J&K Board of Professional Entrance Examinations (JKBPEE) for admission to MBBS/ BDS Courses in the Medical Colleges in J&K. For details, the website of JKBPEE (www.jkbopee.gov.in) and Directorate of Medical Education, J&K Administration, may be visited by the candidates from J&K from time to time for latest updates. The Candidates from the UT of J&K, if they claim eligibility, must submit an online Self Declaration which will be generated and printed automatically along with Confirmation Page for the record and they need to present the same during counselling. The Self-Declaration Form is given in Appendix-II. If the declaration is found to be false at any time, the candidature/admission of such candidates shall be cancelled and criminal proceedings may be initiated against such candidates. Candidates from the UT of J&K can appear in NEET (UG) 2022 for admission to Private Medical/Dental/ Colleges or any Private/Deemed University and AFMC, AIIMS, JIPMER subject to the fulfillment of respective eligibility conditions.
- However, from the academic year 2022-23, the students of UT of Ladakh shall be eligible for admission to 15% of All India Quota
5.4 Qualifications and Qualifying Examination Codes
To be eligible for NEET (UG) – 2022, candidates need to refer to the following table for qualifying examination criteria.
CODE: 01 | A candidate who is appearing in the qualifying examination, i.e., 12 Standard in 2022, whose result is awaited, may apply and appear in the test but he/she shall not be eligible for admission to the Undergraduate Medical Courses if he/she does not pass the qualifying examination with the required pass percentage at the time of first round of Counselling.
Candidates who have appeared or are appearing at the qualifying Examination with English, Physics, Chemistry, and Biology as the main subject and expect to pass the |
Examination with the required percentage of marks are also eligible to apply and appear in the Competitive Entrance Examination. However, their candidature will be considered only if they provide documentary evidence of having passed the qualifying Examination with the required subjects and percentage of marks. | |
OR | |
CODE: 02 | The Higher/Senior Secondary Examination or the Indian School Certificate Examination which is equivalent to class 12 Higher/Senior Secondary Examination after a period of 12 years of study, the last two years of such study comprising of Physics, Chemistry, Biology/Bio-technology (which shall include practical tests in these subjects) and Mathematics or any other elective subject with English at a level not less than the core course for English as prescribed by the National Council of Educational Research and Training after the introduction of the 10+2+3 educational structure as recommended by the National Committee on Education.
Candidates who have passed Class 12 from Open School or as private candidates shall not be eligible to appear for the ‘National Eligibility Cum Entrance Test’. Furthermore, a study of Biology/Biotechnology as an Additional Subject at Class 12 level also shall not be permissible.* *The candidates who have passed Class 12 level with Biology as an additional subject will also be eligible for MBBS Entrance Examination (as per Hon’ble High Court Order No. 2341/-W/DHC/WRIT/D-1/2019 dated 24/09/2019 in the Writ Petition (C) No. 6773/2019. If the institute has to consider an examination of an Indian University or of a foreign/university to be equivalent to the 12 Class under intermediate science examination, the candidates shall have to produce a certificate from the concerned Indian University/Association of Indian Universities to the effect that the examination passed by him/her is considered to be equivalent to the 12 class under intermediate science examination. *(NOTE: The proviso in italics has been a subject matter of challenge before the Hon’ble High Court of Delhi, Hon’ble High Court of Allahabad, Lucknow Bench, and Hon’ble High Court of Madhya Pradesh at Jabalpur. The provisions of the regulations disqualifying recognized Open School Board candidates and the candidates who have studied Biology/Biotechnology as an Additional Subject has been struck down. The Medical Council of India has preferred Special Leave Petitions before the Hon’ble Supreme Court and Appeals in the Hon’ble High Courts. Therefore, the candidature of candidates in the NEET (UG) – 2022 who have passed the qualifying examinations i.e. Class 12 from National Institute of Open Schooling or State Open Schools or as private candidates from recognized State Boards; or with Biology/Biotechnology as an additional subject shall be allowed but subject to the outcome of Special Leave Petitions/Appeals filed by the Medical Council of India) |
OR | |
CODE: 03 | The Intermediate/Pre-degree Examination in Science of an Indian University/Board or other recognized examining body with Physics, Chemistry, Biology /Biotechnology (which shall include practical test in these subjects) and also English as a compulsory subject. |
OR | |
CODE: 04 | The Pre-professional/Pre-medical Examination with Physics, Chemistry, Biology/Biotechnology, and English after passing either the Higher Secondary Examination or the Pre-University or an equivalent examination. The Pre- professional/Pre-medical examination shall include practical tests in these subjects and also English as a compulsory subject. |
OR | |
CODE: 05 | The first year of the three years’ degree course of a recognized University with Physics, Chemistry, and Biology/Biotechnology including practical tests in these subjects provided the examination is a University Examination and the candidate has passed the earlier qualifying examination with Physics, Chemistry, Biology/ Biotechnology with English at a level not less than a core course. |
OR | |
CODE: 06 | B.Sc. Examination of an Indian University provided that he/she has passed the B.Sc. Examination with not less than two of the subjects Physics, Chemistry, Biology (Botany, Zoology)/Biotechnology and further that he/ she has passed the earlier qualifying examination with Physics, Chemistry, Biology, and English. |
OR | |
CODE: 07 | Any other examination which in scope and standard (Last 02 years of 10+2 Study comprising of Physics, Chemistry and Biology/Biotechnology; which shall include practical test in these subjects) is found to be equivalent to the Intermediate Science Examination of an Indian University/Board, taking Physics, Chemistry and Biology/Biotechnology including practical tests in each of these subjects and English. |
- Provided also that to be eligible for NEET (UG) – 2022, the candidate must have passed in Physics, Chemistry, Biology/Biotechnology, and English individually and must have obtained a minimum of 50% marks taken together in Physics, Chemistry, and Biology/Bio-technology at the qualifying examination as mentioned in the Regulations of NMC and DCI. In addition, they must have got a rank in the merit list of NEET (UG)
– 2022 for admission to Undergraduate Medical Courses.
- In respect of the candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, or Other Backward Classes (NCL), the minimum marks obtained in Physics, Chemistry, and Biology/Biotechnology are taken together in the qualifying examination shall be 40% marks instead of 50% marks for Unreserved and General-EWS Candidates. In respect of PWBD candidates as per NMC and DCI Regulations, the minimum marks in the qualifying examination in Physics, Chemistry, and Biology (or Botany & Zoology)/Biotechnology taken together shall be 40% instead of 50%.
- Provided further that the students who have received education abroad and wish to seek admission into medical colleges in India must have passed in Physics, Chemistry, Biology/Biotechnology, and English with 50% marks in Class 12, and their equivalency determined by the Association of Indian Universities (AIU) as per regulations of the Medical Council of India and the concerned University.
- The criteria for minimum qualifying marks to be eligible for admission to MBBS courses shall also be applicable to concerned INIs like AIIMS and JIPMER.
- Note: In all other cases, the States/Institutes that have cut-offs for eligibility other than those mentioned above, may follow their own criteria.
Chapter 6: Counselling and Reservation for Admission to MBBS and BDS Course
6.1 Admission Procedure
6.1.1 Admissions to all seats of Undergraduate Medical / Dental Courses will be done through NEET (UG) – 2022. The following are the seats available under different quotas:
- All India Quota Seats
- State Government Quota Seats
- Central Institutions/Universities/Deemed Universities
- State/Management/NRI Quota Seats in Private Medical / Dental Colleges or any Private University
- Central Pool Quota Seats
- All seats including NRI Quota as well as Management Quota, are in private unaided/aided minority / non-minority medical
- AIIMS Institutes across India/JIPMER.
- The Counselling for successful candidates for Seats under 15% All India Quota and 100% including 85% State quota seats of Central Institutions (ABVIMS & RML Hospital/VMMC & Safdarjung Hospital/ESIC)/ Central Universities (including DU/ BHU /AMU)/ AIIMS/ JIPMER and Deemed Universities, will be conducted by the MCC/DGHS for Undergraduate Medical / Dental Courses. MCC only does the registration for AFMC and forwards the data of registered Candidates to AFMC Authorities for the admission process. DU/BHU and other Universities may use the score for any other relevant courses being offered by
- The counselling for admission to the seats under the control of State Governments/ UT Administrations / State Universities/ Institutions shall be conducted by the designated authorities of the State Governments as per the notifications issued separately by the authorities
- The Result of NEET (UG) – 2022 may be utilized by other Entities of Central and State Governments, in accordance with their respective eligibility criteria / other norms
/applicable regulations/guidelines/ rules. The result data will also be utilized for B.Sc. (H) Nursing courses in accordance with their respective eligibility criteria / other norms
/applicable regulations/guidelines/ rules. The NEET (UG) – 2022 data will also be used for admissions to BVSc & AH courses under the 15% quota of VCI in recognized Veterinary Colleges. However, the Council has to approach the MCC of DGHS, MoHFW in order to obtain the said data of results.
- During counselling, the eligibility criteria, self-declaration, various documents, etc. of the eligible candidates shall be verified as per norms specified by the respective authorities and/or Medical / Dental Colleges. NTA does not have any responsibility towards the correctness/genuinity of the uploaded information/documents during the application
- An All India Merit List of the qualified candidates shall be prepared based on All India Rank in the Merit List of the NEET (UG) – 2022 and candidates shall be admitted to Undergraduate Medical Courses from the said list only, with existing reservation policy. NTA will only provide All India Rank to candidates while Admitting Authorities will
invite applications for Counselling and a merit list shall be drawn based on All India Rank by the Admitting Authorities. Admission to Undergraduate Medical Courses within the respective categories shall be based solely on All India Rank as per merit list of NEET (UG) – 2022.
(a) Admission in State Medical Colleges / Universities / Institutions / private medical colleges for seats other than 15% All India Quota:
- Admission under State Quota Seats shall be subject to reservation policy and eligibility criteria prevailing in the State/Union Territory as notified by the respective State/Union Territory from time to
- The reservation of the seats in medical colleges for respective categories shall be as per applicable laws prevailing in the State/Union Territory
- Admission to Undergraduate Medical Courses in Private Medical Colleges shall be subject to policies of the Government of India/State/Union
(b) Admission to AIIMS / JIPMER / Central Universities (DU/BHU/AMU) / AFMC / GGSIPU / ESIC Medical Colleges / Deemed Universities
- Counselling for admission to MBBS / BDS, etc. Courses in AIIMS / JIPMER / Central Universities [(including Medical Colleges under DU and Guru Govind Singh Indraprastha University (GGSIPU), BHU Medical College, AMU Medical College], ESIC Medical Colleges, and Deemed Universities will be conducted by DGHS, and reservation policy will be as per rules/regulations applicable to such Universities / Candidates aspiring for admission to MBBS / BDS Courses in such Universities/ Institutions based upon their All India Rank (AIR) in NEET (UG) – 2022, shall have to register on the MCC website after the declaration of NEET (UG) – 2022 Result. The Candidate will have to register on the MCC Website. (www.mcc.nic.in). The list of registered candidates will be forwarded to AFMC authorities for conducting counselling at their end.
- Admission to AFMC, Pune shall be subject to the norms prescribed by the Directorate General of Armed Forces Medical Services, Ministry of Defence, Government of India. Candidates who apply for NEET (UG) – 2022 and/or for seeking admission in AFMC also need to apply to AFMC on https://afmc.nic.in/ The shortlisted candidates will be required to appear for a second-stage Screening Test conducted by AFMC. Candidates are advised to contact AFMC for further and exact The Counselling will be conducted by DGHS.
- Admission to Medical Colleges under Central Universities (DU / BHU
/AMU) /ESIC Medical Colleges /AFMC, shall be as per the provisions of the Statutory Regulations of NMC/ DCI, Deemed Universities relevant judgments of the Hon’ble Supreme Court of India, and the procedure prescribed by the Medical Counselling Committee (MCC) under the Directorate General of Health Services (DGHS).
- Further, the common counselling for admission to MBBS /BDS Courses in the concerned INIs shall be conducted by the DGHS as per the time schedule specified in the relevant Graduate Medical Education Regulation (1997) as amended from time to time.
- For all institutions, wherein Counselling is conducted by MCC under the DGHS, the candidates may refer to the Counselling scheme uploaded on the MCC website, so as to determine their eligibility to appear in Counselling for subsequent rounds, including in respect of ineligibility on account of allotment of seats in the previous rounds of Counselling in terms of Regulation 5A(4) of the Regulations on Graduate Medical Education, 1997 (Appendix-F) which provides for preventing seat blocking in common Counselling for admission to MBBS
- For all institutions, wherein Counselling is conducted by the State I Union Govt. or its designated authority, the candidates may refer to the Counselling Notifications issued by the State I Union or its designated authority, so as to determine their eligibility to appear in Counselling for subsequent rounds, including in respect of ineligibility on account of allotment of seats in the previous rounds of Counselling in terms of Regulation 5A(4) of the Regulations on Graduate Medical Education, 1997 (Appendix-F) which provides for preventing seat blocking in common Counselling for admission to MBBS.
6.2 Reservation Policy for Admission to MBBS and BDS Course
Indian nationals belonging to certain categories are admitted under the seats reserved for them in accordance with the rules prescribed by the Government of India. The categories and the extent of reservation are as follows:
- General category belonging to Economically Weaker Section (GEN- EWS) – 10% of seats in every course. The benefit of reservation will be given only to those General category candidates who satisfy the conditions given in the OM No. 20013/01/2018- BC-II dated 17 January 2019, issued by the Ministry of Social Justice and The criteria for GEN-EWS will be as per the prevailing norms and/or notifications of the Government of India.
- Other Backward Classes belonging to the Non-Creamy Layer (OBC- NCL) – 27%
of seats in every course.
- OBCs should be listed in the current updated central list of OBCs (http://www.ncbc.nic.in).
- OBCs present in the state list but not covered in the central list of OBCs (as per the list in http://www.ncbc.nic.in) are NOT eligible to claim the
- The criteria for OBC-NCLwill be as per the notification of the Government of India.
- Candidates belonging to the creamy layer of OBC are NOT entitled to Such candidates are treated as belonging to the general (GEN), i.e. unreserved category, and they will be eligible only for the OPEN seats – the seats for which all candidates are eligible.
- Scheduled Caste (SC) – 15% of seats in every
- Scheduled Tribe (ST) – 5% of seats in every course.
- Persons with Disability (PwD) – 5% seats in each of OPEN, GEN-EWS, OBC-NCL, SC, and ST category seats.
- Candidates with at least 40% impairment irrespective of the type of disability i.e., locomotor, visual or SEVERE dyslexic shall be eligible for the benefits of the PwD
- Leprosy-cured candidates who are otherwise fit to pursue the courses are also included in this
6.2.1 For Candidates claiming the GEN-EWS category
GEN-EWS certificate (Appendix – IXA) needs to be uploaded in the Online Application Form of NEET (UG) – 2022 which should have been issued on or after 01 January 2022 in consonance with the latest guidelines of the Government of India. If any GEN-EWS candidate fails to submit the GEN-EWS certificate (issued on or after 01 January 2022) at the time of online registration, the candidate has to upload a declaration [Declaration in Lieu of Gen-EWS Certificate at (Appendix – IXB)] to that effect (Reference: No.F.No.20013/01/2018-BC-II).
6.2.2 For Candidates claiming the OBC-NCL category
OBC-NCL certificate (Appendix – XA) needs to be uploaded in the Online Application Form of NEET (UG) – 2022 which should have been issued on or after 01 January 2022, in consonance with the latest guidelines of the Government of India. If any OBC-NCL candidate fails to upload the OBC- NCL certificate (issued on or after 01 January 2022) at the time of online registration, the candidate has to upload a declaration [Declaration in Lieu of OBC-NCL Certificate as per Appendix – XB] to that effect. Visit http://www.ncbc.nic.in for the latest guidelines and updates on the Central List of State-wise OBCs.
6.2.3 For Candidates claiming the SC or ST category
Caste (for SC) or tribe (for ST) certificate (Appendix – XI) needs to be uploaded in the Online Application Form of NEET (UG) – 2022, as per the latest guidelines of the Government of India.
6.2.4 For Candidates claiming the PwD category
- Physical Disability certificate (Unique Disability Identification (UDID) Certificate or Appendix – XII (Form-PwD(II))/ Appendix – XIII (Form- PwD(III))/ Appendix – XIV (Form-PwD(IV)), whichever is applicable, issued by the notified medical authority needs to be uploaded in the Online Application Form of NEET (UG) – 2022.
- Dyslexic candidates need to submit Appendix – XV (Form-DYSLEXIC-1) and Appendix – XVI (Form-DYSLEXIC 2) instead of Appendix – XII (Form- PwD(II))/ Appendix – XIII (Form-PwD(III))/ Appendix – XIV (Form-PwD(IV)). The certificate must mention ‘SEVERE’ under the Dyslexia category to enable the candidate to get the benefit of the PwD
In this case, both Appendix – XV (Form-DYSLEXIC-1) and Appendix – XVI (Form- DYSLEXIC-2) must be merged into a single pdf file to upload in the Online Application Form of NEET (UG) – 2022.
6.3 Provisions relating to Persons with Disability (PwD)
As per Section 2(t) of the RPwD Act, “Persons with Disability (PwD)” means a person with long-term physical, mental, intellectual, or sensory impairment which, in interaction with barriers, hinders his full and effective participation in society equally with others.
According to Section 2(r) of the RPwD Act, 2016, “persons with benchmark disabilities” means a person with not less than forty percent (40%) of a specified disability where specified disability has not been defined in measurable terms and includes a person with disability where specified disability has been defined in measurable terms, as certified by the certifying authority.
6.4 Facilities for PwD candidates to appear in the exam
As per the guidelines issued by the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (Divyangjan) under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment issued from time to time on the subject: “Written Examination for Persons with Benchmark Disabilities”, A candidate with one of the benchmark disabilities [as defined in Section 2(r) of RPwD Act, 2016], holding a Disability Certificate in the format prescribed in Appendix – XII (Form-PwD(II))/ Appendix
– XIII (Form-PwD(III))/ Appendix – XIV (Form-PwD(IV)) or Appendix – XV (Form- DYSLEXIC-1) and Appendix – XVI (Form-DYSLEXIC 2), is entitled to the following facilities:
- The facility of Scribe, in case he/she has a physical limitation and a scribe is essential to write the examination on his/her behalf, being so certified in the aforesaid format by a CMO/Civil Surgeon/ Medical Superintendent of a Government Health Care
- Compensatory time of one hour for examination of three hours duration, whether such candidate uses the facility of Scribe or not.
6.5 Services of a Scribe
As per the office memorandum of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (Reference:
- No. 34-02/2015-DD-III dated August 29, 2018), the PwD candidates who are visually impaired OR dyslexic (severe) OR have a disability in the upper limbs OR have lost fingers/hands thereby preventing them from properly operating the Computer Based Test platform may avail the services of a scribe (amanuensis).
The scribe will help the Candidate in reading the questions and/or keying in the answers as per
the directions of the Candidate. A scribe will NEITHER explain the questions NOR suggest any solutions.
PwD candidates who desire to avail the services of a scribe need to opt for this during the online registration of NEET (UG) – 2022. A copy of the PwD certificate (Form-PwD [II/III/IV, whichever is applicable]) OR a copy of the certificates of Dyslexic Candidate (Form- DYSLEXIC 1 and DYSLEXIC 2), whichever is applicable, must be uploaded at the time of online registration for NEET (UG) – 2022. The formats for the PwD/Dyslexia certificate are given in Appendix – XII (Form-PwD(II))/ Appendix – XIII (Form-PwD(III))/ Appendix – XIV (Form-PwD(IV)) / Appendix – XIV (Form-DYSLEXIC-1) and Appendix – XVI (Form-DYSLEXIC 2), whichever is applicable])
It is to be noted that the Scribe will be provided by the National Testing Agency only. The candidates will NOT be allowed to bring his/her own scribe.
If it is found at any stage that a candidate has availed the services of a scribe and/or availed the compensatory time, but does not possess the extent of disability that warrants the use of a scribe and/or grant of compensatory time, the candidate will be excluded from the process of evaluation, ranking, counseling, and admission. In case such a candidate has already been admitted to any Institution, the admission of the candidate will be cancelled.
- Candidates must note that the benefit of reservation will be given to them subject to verification of documents. If it is discovered at any stage that a candidate has used a false/fake/incorrect document, or has furnished false, incorrect, or incomplete information, in order to avail the benefit of reservation, then such a candidate shall be excluded from all admission In case such a candidate has already been given admission, the admission shall stand cancelled.
6.6 Reservation in Central Institutes / Universities
The reservation policy of the Government of India is applicable to NEET (UG) Examination. According to this, in the Central Universities and Institutions, 10% of the seats are reserved for the category General-Economically Weaker Section (GEN-EWS), 15% of the seats are reserved for the category Scheduled Caste (SC), 7.5% for the category Scheduled Tribe (ST), 27% for the category Other Backward Classes belonging to the Non-Creamy Layer (OBC-NCL) and 5% seats (Horizontal Reservation) for PwBD candidates.
Reservation in State Quota Seats/Universities/Institutions /Private Medical Colleges under State Governments: In case of seats filled by the State Medical Colleges/Universities/Institutions
/Private Medical Colleges under State Quota Seats, the reservation policy of the concerned State Government shall apply.
6.7 Guidelines for PwD Candidates
- The candidates with a Disability shall be considered for admission in medical course against 5% of the total seats, in accordance with the criteria prescribed under the Regulation on Graduate Medical Education (1997) as amended up to 13-05-2019 (Please see Appendix-XII).
- For AIIMS: In accordance with RPwD Act 2016, PwD Reservation on a Horizontal & Category basis will be followed subject to evaluation by the Medical Board of Institute to determine
- Candidates who consider themselves eligible for this category are advised to ensure their eligibility by getting themselves examined at any Government Medical College/District Hospital/Government Such Government Medical College/District Hospital/Government Hospital shall issue a Disability Certificate in reference to Chapter-VII of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Rules, 2017. Such a Disability Certificate is issued as per the Schedule to the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, and the Guidelines for the purpose of assessing the extent of specified disability in a person included under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 notified in the Gazette of India by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment [Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (Divyangjan)] on 4th January 2018 and does not confer any right on any candidate to seek admission in a medical course under PwBD Quota. The aforesaid Certificate shall be to ascertain whether a candidate can apply to NTA for appearing in NEET (UG) – 2022 under the PwBD Quota only.
- Thereafter, the candidates, upon selection under PwBD Category, shall have to produce a Disability Certificate issued by the Disability Assessment Board, which shall have assessed the candidate in reference to criteria prescribed under the Regulations on Graduate Medical Education, 1997 as amended up to 14.05.2019. Thus, it is relevant that the candidates after a declaration of the result have to appear before the Disability Assessment Board so as to determine whether they may register or participate in the common online Counselling towards admission to medical In case candidates are found to be ineligible by the Disability Assessment Board, in reference to criteria prescribed under the Regulations on Graduate Medical Education, 1997 as amended on 14.05.2019, they may not register or participate in the common online Counselling and any online provisional allotment of the medical college shall be entirely fraudulent on the part of the candidate. It is relevant that physical verification of various certificates including academic as well as Disability Certificate is only upon reporting for admission to the medical college.
- It is further clarified that the certificates issued by the authorized Centres designated for the purpose by DGHS, shall only be considered for admission to the medical courses and no other certificate issued by any other Government Medical College/District Hospital/Government Hospital will be
- The Disability Certificate to be issued in the format given in Appendix-XIII (vide DGHS Notice Ref. No. U-11011/04/2020/05-MEC dated 26.10.2020) has to be issued by the designated Centres (Appendix-XII), as per the criteria prescribed under the Regulations on Graduate Medical Education (1997) as amended upto 14.05.2019, w.r.t. common counselling conducted by MCC / DGHS for All India Quota seats and for Medical Institutions that are subject to common counselling of MCC/ DGHS.
- Likewise, the designated Counselling Authorities of State /UT Governments shall constitute Disability Assessment Boards/Centres for assessing the suitability of the candidate in reference to criteria prescribed under the Regulations on Graduate Medical Education (1997) as amended up to 105.2019 and shall notify the same on their respective websites.
- The reservation policy, as prescribed by the government from time to time will be followed by the admitting The candidates are advised to look for the details at the time of admission.
6.8 Instructions for Counselling by the MCC for MBBS and BDS Admission
- Online counselling would be conducted by the Medical Counselling Committee (MCC) of the Directorate General of Health Services for Undergraduate Medical Information for online counselling would only be available on the MCC website (https://mcc.nic.in/UGCounselling/) for Undergraduate Medical/Dental Courses. Qualified candidates are advised to read the counselling-related information carefully and understand the course of action to be taken by them for appearing in the Counselling.
- MCC is conducting Counselling for:
- 15% All India Quota seats MBBS/ BDS Seats of States ( as per the information provided by Jammu & Kashmir authorities, they will participate in the coun selling from 2022-23)
- 100% MBBS/ BDS Seats of BHU OPEN
- AIIMS Open seats- 100% MBBS Seats of AIIMS across India
- JIPMER Open (Puducherry/ Karaikal) & Internal seats (Domicile)
- AMU Open & Internal seats
- 85% Internal quota/domicile seats of DU/ P University (VMMC/ ABVIMS/ESIC Dental)
- Jamia Open seats- Faculty of Dentistry (Jamia Milia Islamia) & Internal seats
- 15% All India Quota Seats of ESIC & Insured Persons quota seats
- AFMC – Only registration
- 100% Sc (Nursing) of selected Central B.Sc. Nursing Institutes
- Any query related to Counselling for admission to seats under 15% All India Quota and in Central Institutions / Universities, including AIIMS/JIPMER/AFMC/ESIC/DU/BHU/ AMU, and Deemed Universities, may be referred to the following address: For MBBS/BDS Courses: The Assistant Director General (ME) Directorate General of Health Services, Nirman Bhawan, New Delhi- 110108, E-mail: aipmt-mcc@nic.in, https://mcc.nic.in/UGCounselling/Home/ContactUs
iv. Reservation policy for 15% AIQ, Central Institutes (ABVIMS & RML and VMMC & SJH, ESIC) Universities (DU, AMU, BHU)/AIIMS/JIPMER is as follows:
Reservation Policy of the Central Government for the NEET (UG) Counselling in All India Quota/Central Institutes (ABVIMS & RML and VMMC & SJH, ESIC) Universities (DU, AMU, BHU)/AIIMS/JIPMER is as follows:
- C- 15 %
- T- 7.5 %
- PwD- 5 % Horizontal Reservation
- OBC (Non-Creamy Layer)- 27% as per Central List of OBC
- EWS- 10 % as per Central Government Norms
Reservation Policy for Deemed University is as follows:
- NRI Quota
Ø Jain & Muslim Minority
- Candidates from the creamy layer and those who do not come under the Central List of OBC are advised to mention their category as Unreserved/General.
- The disability centres in the MCC chapter that “ for participating in the MCC counselling, the disability certificate uploaded in MCC Information Bulletin may be referred which must be issued by one of the 15 designated disability issuing certificate boards ”
For MBBS/BDS Courses:
The Assistant Director General (ME) Directorate General of Health Services, Nirman Bhawan, New Delhi-110 108
E-mail: oo-adgme-dghs@gov.in https://mcc.nic.in/UGCounselling/Home/ContactUs
Chapter 7: General Instructions and Submission of Application Form/Payment of Fee
7.1 General Instructions
- Merely appearing and qualifying in NEET (UG) – 2022 does not confer any right to the candidate for admission to Undergraduate Medical Courses. The selection and admission to Undergraduate Medical Courses seats in any Medical Institution recognized for offering Undergraduate Medical Courses is subject to fulfilling the admission criteria, eligibility, rank in the merit list, medical fitness, and such other criteria as may be prescribed by the Government of India, respective States, Universities, Institutions and Medical/ Dental/ Ayurveda/ Siddha/ Unani/ Homeopathy
- Applications of candidates submitting false and fabricated information will be rejected and such candidates will be further debarred from appearing in examinations conducted by NTA. Such candidates will also be prosecuted under applicable laws for a criminal offense and suitably
- Incomplete applications and applications not in accordance with instructions are liable to be rejected without any further intimation.
- The examination fee once deposited will not be refunded. The fee will not be carried forward to a future
- Applications once submitted cannot be withdrawn. Candidates must note that mere deduction of fee from the bank account is not proof of fee payment. The payment should be supported by fee payment and generation of the Confirmation Page.
- Instructions in the Information Bulletin may change /be updated based on decisions taken by the NTA and other authorities from time to time. Candidates are advised to regularly check the website https://neet.nta.nic.in/, for any further updates or
- NTA reserves the right to withdraw permission, granted inadvertently if any, to a candidate who is not eligible to appear in the NEET (UG) – 2022 even though the Admit Card has been issued by the NTA.
- Candidate’s eligibility for NEET (UG) – 2022 is purely provisional and is subject to fulfillment of eligibility criteria prescribed by the NMC / DCI / NCISM /NCH / CCIM / CCH / Ministry of Health & Family Welfare / Ministry of AYUSH, as the case may be.
- In case of any ambiguity in the interpretation of any of the instructions/ terms/ rules/ regulations/ criteria regarding the determination of eligibility/ information contained therein, the interpretation of the NMC/ DCI/ NCISM/ NCH/ CIM/ CCH/Ministry of Health & Family Welfare / Ministry of AYUSH, as the case may be, shall be final and binding.
- In case of any ambiguity in the interpretation of any of the norms /terms
/rules/instructions regarding registration of candidates, allocation of Exam Centre, issuance of Admit Card, the conduct of exam and publication of Result and All India Rank (AIR), the interpretation /determination of NTA shall be final and binding.
- The conduct of the NEET (UG) – 2022 Examination would be videographed. The candidates are required to keep their heads in an upright position and face the camera during the videography so that their identity can be clearly The candidates should agree to the videography during the examination.
7.2 Readiness for filling up Application Form
- A candidate can apply for the NEET (UG) – 2022 by logging on to
- Before submitting of application form, make the following preparations:
- The information to be filled in the Online Application Form such as names of Father/Mother and Candidate with correct spellings,/ Class 12 Admit Card with Photograph/Election Card (EPIC )/Passport number/Ration Card Number/ Bank Account Number/Other valid Govt. Identity Card Number, Date of Birth, Address, Mobile Number, email id, etc. may be kept ready. Candidates are advised to check the “Replica of Application Form” as given in (Appendix-XXIV), before the actual filling of the Application.
- The candidates need to provide any one of the following identity details given below:
Category of Candidates | Types of permissible IDs |
Indian Nationals of all States | Class 12 Admit Card, Election Card (EPIC No.), Ration Card, Bank Account Passbook with Photograph, Passport Number or Number of any other Photo Identity Card issued by Government. |
NRIs | Passport Number |
Foreign Nationals/ OCI | Passport Number/ Citizenship Certificate Number |
- Candidates have to scan images of the following in JPG /PDF format only, for uploading the same as part of the submission of his/her online application:
- Latest Passport size Photograph in JPG format (size: 10 kb to 200 kb)
Ø Post Card size photograph (4” X6”) in JPG format (Size: 10 kb – 200 kb)
- Signature in JPG format (size: 4 kb to 30 kb)
Ø Left and Right hand Fingers and Thumb impressions
- Class 10 passed certificate in PDF format (file size: 50 kb to 300 kb)
- Category certificate (SC/ST/OBC/EWS ) in PDF format (file size: 50 kb to 300 kb)
- PwBD certificate in PDF format (file size: 50 kb to 300 kb)
- Citizenship Certificate/ Embassy Certificate or any Documentary proof of Citizenship certificate in PDF format (file size: 50 kb to 300 kb)
7.3 Instructions for completing the Online Application Form
- The candidate, before submitting the application form online, must ensure his eligibility to appear in the The candidate is required to go through the Information Bulletin carefully and be clear about all requirements with regard to the submission of the Application Form.
- The Candidate should fill in complete correspondence and permanent address with the pin code, e-mail address, and mobile number (own or Parents/Guardian only) for future
- Candidates must ensure that mobile numbers and e-mail ID filled in the online Application Form are their own or Parents/Guardian only as NTA will communicate through SMS or e-mail on the given mobile number and e-mail
- Candidate should not give the postal address, contact number/mobile number, and e- mail ID of Coaching Centres in their Online Application Form.
- Those Candidates who have passed should fill Code [02 to 07] against the column provided for in case of Qualifying Examination
- Candidates appearing in Class 12 in 2022 should select a qualifying code as
- The Application Form other than the one filled in online mode will not be accepted. The Candidates are not required to send the Confirmation Page of the Online Application Form or any other document to the NTA. However, the candidates are advised to preserve at least four copies of the Confirmation Page along with the proof of fee paid for future
- Candidates from UT of J&K and Ladakh are required to submit an online Self Declaration for seats under 15% All India
NOTE:
- Request for change in any particulars in the online Application shall not be entertained under any
- Incomplete Applications shall be summarily
- If a candidate submits more than one Application Form, his candidature will be
- If during any stage of examination, any doubt arises that a candidate has filled in multiple forms or impersonated or not provided genuine information or given fake or false, information or the likes such a candidate can be asked to give additional proof of his identity at any point of
- If at any stage, including after declaration of result, it is found that the candidate has submitted duplicate forms or has been involved in any form of impersonation or fabricated facts, such candidate shall be liable for severe penalty including being debarred from taking the NTA examination for a period of three years. Such candidates shall also be liable for suitable criminal action under relevant laws of the country.
- Online Transaction Password (OTP) generated on the NEET (UG) – 2022 website while registering/submitting the form will be valid for 15 minutes After the lapse of this period, candidates need to click on the link “RESEND OTP” to generate a new OTP.
Step 1: Registration Page
Registration |
A candidate can apply for the NEET (UG) – 2022 only online by logging on to
(i) Candidate’s Name/ Mother’s Name/ Father’s Name as given in the Secondary School Examination or equivalent Board/ University Certificate in capital letters (ii) Date of Birth in dd/mm/yyyy format as recorded in Secondary School Examination or equivalent Board/ University certificate. (iii) Identification Type: Candidates need to provide any one of the following identity details given below: |
|
- Mobile Number and e-mail Address: Candidates must provide their own or Parents/Guardian Mobile Number and e-mail address
- Provide complete postal address with PIN Code (Correspondence and permanent address) for further correspondence. PIN code of Correspondence, as well as a permanent address, should be given in the space provided for this
Step 2: Application
Fill in the complete Application Form
- The application particulars entered in Step-I can be edited before the final submission of the Application Form except for Mobile No. and Email address, which may not be changed after Step-I.
- Category: General, General-EWS, SC, ST & OBC-NCL are available in the drop-down list under the Category option. No Caste Certificate is to be uploaded in the Online Application Form of NEET (UG) – 2022, necessary document (s) related to Caste / Community will be verified at the Counselling by concerned Central/State Counselling
- Other Backward Classes (OBC-NCL)- Non-Creamy Layer as per the Central List of Other Backward Classes available on National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), Government of India website (www.ncbc.nic.in). Thus, the candidates falling in this list may mention OBC-NCL in the Category Column. State list OBC-NCL Candidates who are not in OBC-NCL (Central List) must choose
- Economically Weaker Section (EWS) – As per the OM No. 20013/01/2018-BC- II dated January 17, 2019, issued by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and the OM No. 12-4/2019-U1 dated 17.01.2019 as well as the Letters No 35-2/2019-T.S.I dated 01.2019, 01.02.2019, 04.02.2019, and 15.02.2019 of the MHRD Department of Higher Education (now known as
Ministry of Education) regarding the implementation of reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) for admission in Central Educational Institutions.
Nationality: Indian Nationals, Non-Resident Indians (NRIs), Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) & Foreign Nationals are eligible to appear in NEET (UG) –
- PwD Status: “PwD” means Person with Benchmark Disabilities in accordance with the provisions of the Rights of Persons with Disability Act, 2016 and as per MCI Regulations dated May 13, 2019 (Appendix-XIII). PwD Certificate (Appendix-XIII) issued by the Competent Authority (Appendix-XIII), if claiming the relaxation under the PwD
- Choice of Examination Cities: The candidate should select any four cities of their choice for examination of NEET (UG) – 2022 given in Appendix-VII. Allotment of Centre is made by computer and there is no human intervention.
6. Medium of Question Paper:
- Candidates opting for English would be provided Test Booklet in English
· Candidates opting for Hindi/Regional Language would be provided Bilingual Test Booklet i.e. in Hindi/Regional Language and in English. In case of any ambiguity in the translation of any of the questions, its English version shall be treated as final.
- Academic Details (10, 11 & 12): The candidate has to fill in the complete academic details of the 10, 11 & 12/Qualifying Examination. Candidates who passed should fill Code [02 to 07] against the column provided for Qualifying Examination. Candidates appearing in Class 12 in 2022 should select a qualifying code as
Note:
- Only one application should be submitted by a
- Once finally submitted, particulars in certain specific fields may be changed only during the correction After that, no communication in this regard would be entertained.
- Registration will be treated as complete only if the fee has been transacted successfully, else the form will be
- Candidates are not required to send/ submit a hard copy of the Confirmation Page to the NTA However, the candidates are advised to retain the hard copy of the Confirmation Page, and a proof of fee submitted for future need.
- Candidates must note that mere deduction of fee from the bank account is not proof of fee The payment should be supported by an updated fee. The generation of the Confirmation page is proof of successful submission of the Application Form.
- The details filled by the candidate like candidate category, phone number, and email, in NEET (UG) – 2022 application will be used for the purpose of all India quota seats counselling. No request for change in candidate category at the time of all India quota seats counselling will be entertained by the counselling authority designated by the Central Government.
Candidate’s Photograph, Signature, and Thumb Impression |
Candidate’s Photograph: to be uploaded in JPG format
Ø Passport size Photograph (size: 10 kb to 200 kb) Ø Post Card size photograph (4”X6”) (Size: 10 kb to 200 kb) · The photographs must be taken on or after 01.01.2022 preferably indicating clearly the name of the candidate along with the date of taking the photograph. Photographs should not be with cap or goggles. The focus needs to be on the face (80% face coverage, ears clearly visible, white background) · Spectacles are allowed only if being used regularly. · Polaroid and Computer-generated photos are not acceptable. · Applications not complying with these instructions or with unclear photographs are liable to be rejected. · Application without photographs shall be rejected. · The photographs need not be attested. Candidates are advised to keep 6 to 8 passport size and 4 to 6 Post Card size (4”X6”) colour photographs with white backgrounds. · Candidates may note that if the photographs uploaded are found to be fabricated i.e. de-shaped or seem to be hand-made or computer made, the application of the candidate will be rejected and the same would be considered as using Unfair Means and the candidate would be dealt with accordingly. · In case someone else’s photographs have been uploaded, the candidature shall be cancelled and the case will be considered as an Unfair Means Case. Criminal action as per laws of the land shall also be initiated. Note: Same Passport size and Post Card size photographs are to be used for uploading with Online Application Form and for pasting on Attendance Sheet at the Examination Centre / Counselling / Admission. Candidates are reminded to keep 6 to 8 passport size and 4 to 6 Post Card size (4”X6”) colour photographs with white background. Candidate’s Signature: to be uploaded in JPG format · The candidate should put his full signature in running handwriting [not in the capital letter] on white paper with a Black Ink pen and scan for uploading. · File size must be between 4 kb to 30 kb. · The unsigned Online Application Forms will be rejected. · In case someone else’s signature has been uploaded, the candidature shall be cancelled and the case will be considered as an Unfair Means Case. Criminal action as per laws of the land shall also be initiated. Candidate’s Left and Right hand Fingers and Thumb impressions: to be uploaded in JPG format · The candidate should put Left and Right hand Fingers and Thumb impressions as per the Template provided (Appendix XXVI) · File size must be between 10 kb to 200 kb. Further, unclear Left and Right hand fingers and thumb Impressions in Online Application Forms will also be rejected. |
Step 3: Fee payment |
After completing Step 3 of the online Application Form, candidates may remit the examination fee by choosing the following options:
· Select Debit/Credit Card/Net-banking/UPI /Paytm of Service Provider (Service/Processing charges per transaction & GST (as applicable) to be paid by the candidate wherever applicable) and complete the steps as instructed. · Print the Confirmation Page after completion of Step 3 i.e. payment through Debit/Credit card/ Net-banking/UPI through State Bank of India/Canara Bank/HDFC Bank/ICICI Bank/Paytm as a service provider(s). · If a candidate fails to complete all the steps upto Step 3, the final submission of the Online Application will remain incomplete and unsuccessful. · Generation of Confirmation Page confirms final submission of Application Form. If Confirmation Page has not been generated, this means that Application Form has not been submitted successfully. Note: In case, the fee payment status is not ‘OK’ the candidates are advised as following: · If the fee is paid through a credit/debit card and the status is not OK, it means the transaction is cancelled. Therefore, such candidates have to pay the fee once again and ensure the OK fee status. · For a cancelled transaction, the amount deducted (if any) in the process of a failed transaction, may automatically be refunded to the concerned Candidate through the same Bank / Payment Gateway / Payment mode through which the transaction was made. · In case the Confirmation Page is not generated after payment of the prescribed Fee, then the candidate should approach the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway integrator (in the helpline number and email given in Appendix- XXIII of the Information Bulletin), for ensuring the successful payment. · In spite of the above, if a successful transaction is not reflected on the Portal, the candidate may contact NTA Helpline. If the payment issue is still not resolved, the candidate may pay a second time. · However, any duplicate payment received from the candidate by NTA in the course of said transactions will be refunded through the same payment mode through which the duplicate payment is received, after fee reconciliation by NTA. |
- Check List for filling the Online Application Form
The candidates are advised to ensure the following points before submitting the Online Application Forms: | |||
(i) Whether they fulfill the prescribed eligibility conditions for the Test | |||
(ii) That they have selected their gender viz. Male/Female/Third Gender correctly. | |||
(iii)That they have selected their category viz General/General-EWS/OBC-NCL (Non-Creamy Layer)/SC/ST correctly. | |||
(iv) That the Person with Benchmark Disability candidate has filled the relevant column in the Online Application Form correctly. Only PwBD candidates with Benchmark disabilities have to fill this column and the others have to leave it blank. | |||
(v) Whether they have kept a Printout of Application Form (Confirmation Page) for their own record. |
Chapter 8:Particulars to be filled in the Online Application Form
Page | Section | Column | |
Registration Page | Personal Details | 1. | Candidate Name |
2. | Father Name | ||
3. | Mother Name | ||
4. | Candidate Date of Birth | ||
5. | Gender | ||
6. | Nationality | ||
7. | Identity Type | ||
8. | Identification Number | ||
Present Address | 9. | Address | |
10. | Locality | ||
11. | City/Town/Village | ||
12. | Country | ||
13. | State | ||
14. | District | ||
15. | Pin code | ||
16. | Mobile Number | ||
17. | Email Address | ||
18. | Alternate Contact no | ||
Permanent | 19. | Address | |
Address | 20. | Locality | |
21. | City/Town/Village | ||
22. | Country | ||
23. | State | ||
24. | District | ||
25. | Pin code | ||
Choose | 26. | Password | |
Password | 27. | Confirm Password | |
28. | Security Question | ||
29. | Security Answer | ||
Security Pin | 30. | Security Pin | |
Application Page | Personal Details | 31. | Candidate Name (Auto filled) |
32. | Candidate Date of Birth (Auto filled) | ||
33. | Gender (Auto filled) | ||
34. | Father Name (Auto filled) | ||
35. | Mother Name(Auto filled) | ||
36. | Nationality (Auto-filled) | ||
37. | State/UT from where 12th Equivalent Passed/Appearing* | ||
38. | Self-Declaration upload as per rule (Only applicable for J & K Candidates) | ||
39. | Category | ||
40. | If you a PwD candidate, do you have benchmark disability (40% or more / “severe” where
percentage is not defined)? |
||
41. | Type of Disability | ||
42. | Do you need a scribe (as the criteria given in the Information Bulletin) | ||
43. | Percentage of disability | ||
44. | Are you Diabetic? | ||
45. | Country of Residence | ||
46. | In case of a girl candidate, are you the only girl child of your parents | ||
47. | Place of residence | ||
48. | Belongs to Minority | ||
49. | Religious Minority |
50. Mode of preparation | |||
51. Do you intend to wear customary dress contrary
to the dress code while appearing in NEET(UG) – 2022 |
|||
52. Apply for (Pre-filled) | |||
53. Question Paper Medium | |||
54. Exam State – City Choice 1 | |||
55. Exam State – City Choice 2 | |||
56. Exam State – City Choice 3 | |||
57. Exam State – City Choice 4 | |||
Educational Details | (For 10th | 58. | Pass Status |
/Equivalent) | 59. Year of Passing/Appearing | ||
60. Qualifying Exam | |||
61. Place of schooling | |||
62. Type of School College | |||
63. Qualifying Examination State | |||
64. Qualifying Examination District | |||
65. School Board | |||
66. Result Mode | |||
67. Maximum Grade Point | |||
68. CGPA Obtained | |||
69. CGPA | |||
70. Total Marks | |||
71. Obtained Marks | |||
72. Marks (%) | |||
73. Roll Number | |||
74. School/College Name address | |||
75. School/College Pin code | |||
(For 11th)/ | 76. | Pass Status | |
Equivalent | 77. Year of Passing/Appearing | ||
78. Qualifying Exam | |||
79. Place of schooling | |||
80. Type of School College | |||
81. Qualifying Examination State | |||
82. Qualifying Examination District | |||
83. School Board | |||
84. Result Mode | |||
85. Maximum Grade Point | |||
86. CGPA Obtained | |||
87. CGPA | |||
88. Total Marks | |||
89. Obtained Marks | |||
90. Marks (%) | |||
91. Roll Number | |||
92. School/College Name address | |||
93. School/College Pin code | |||
Educational Details | 94. | Exam State – City Choice 4 | |
95. Pass Status | |||
96. Year of Passing/Appearing | |||
97. Qualifying Exam | |||
(For 12th)/ | 98. | Place of schooling | |
Equivalent | 99. Type of School College | ||
100. Qualifying Examination State* | |||
101. Qualifying Examination District | |||
102. School Board | |||
103. Result Mode | |||
104. Maximum Grade Point | |||
105. CGPA Obtained |
106. | CGPA | |
107. | Total Marks | |
108. | Obtained Marks | |
109. | Marks (%) | |
110. | Roll Number | |
111. | School/College Name address | |
112. | School/College Pin code | |
Additional Details | 113. | Place of Birth |
114. | State | |
115. | District | |
Parents Income Details | 116. | Father Qualification |
117. | Father Occupation | |
118. | Father Annual Income | |
119. | Mother Qualification | |
120. | Mother Occupation | |
121. | Mother Annual Income | |
122. | Guardian Qualification | |
123. | Guardian Occupation | |
124. | Guardian Annual Income | |
Uploading Documents | 125. | Passport size Photo |
126. | Postcard size Photo | |
127. | Left and Right Hand Fingers and Thumb Impression | |
128. | Signature | |
129. | Self-Declaration Certificate (Only applicable for J & K Candidates) | |
130. | Category Certificate | |
131. | Person With Benchmark Disability(PwBD) Certificate | |
132. | 10th Certificate | |
133. | Citizenship Certificate |
Note: *The information about the State field of the respective candidate is only for the purpose of information and it does not mean that the candidate belongs to the domicile of that particular state as it needs to be reaffirmed from the DME of the respective states.
Chapter 9:Admit Card
- The Admit Card is issued provisionally to the candidates, subject to the fulfillment of the eligibility
- The candidate has to download the Admit Card from the NTA website (https://neet.nta.nic.in/) and appear for the Examination at the given Centre on the Date and timing as indicated in their Admit Card.
9.3 No candidate will be allowed to appear at the Examination Centre, on the Date and Timing other than that allotted to him/her in his / her Admit Card.
- In case a candidate is unable to download his/ her Admit Cards from the website, he or she may approach the Help Line between 10:00 am to 05.00 pm or write an email to NTA at neet@nta.ac.in.
9.5 The candidates are advised to read the instructions given in this Information Bulletin as well as on the Admit Card carefully and follow them scrupulously during the conduct of the examination.
- In case of any discrepancy in the particulars of the candidate or his/her photograph and signatures shown in the Admit Card and Confirmation Page, the candidate may immediately approach the Help Line between 10:00 am and 5:00 In such cases, candidates would appear in the Examination with the already downloaded Admit Card. However, NTA will take necessary action to make corrections in the record later.
Chapter 10:Barred Items and Dress Code
10.1 Barred Items
- The candidates will be subjected to extensive and compulsory frisking before entering the Examination Centre with the help of highly sensitive metal detectors. The candidates are not allowed to carry the following items inside the Examination Centre under any
- Any item like textual material (printed or written), bits of papers, Geometry/Pencil Box, Plastic Pouch, Calculator, Pen, Scale, Writing Pad, Pen Drives, Eraser, Calculator, Log Table, Electronic Pen/Scanner, etc.
- Any communication device like Mobile Phone, Bluetooth, Earphones, Microphone, Pager, Health Band, etc.
- Other items like Wallet, Goggles, Handbags, Belt, Cap,
- Any Watch/Wristwatch, Bracelet, Camera,
- Any ornaments/metallic
- Any food items opened or packed, water bottle,
- Any other item which could be used for unfair means, by hiding communication devices like a microchip, camera, Bluetooth device, etc.
[Note: Any applicable order of Hon’ble Supreme Court/High Courts will be followed in this regard].
- No arrangement will be made at the Centres for keeping any articles/items belonging to the
- The candidates wearing articles or objects of faith (customary/ cultural/ religious ) should report at the examination centre atleast two hours before the last reporting time so that there is enough time for proper frisking without any inconvenience to the candidate while maintaining the sanctity of the examination. If upon screening, it is discovered that any candidate is actually carrying a suspected device within such item of faith, he/ she may be asked not to take it into the examination hall.
10.2 Dress Code
- The candidates are instructed to follow the following dress code while appearing for NEET (UG) – 2022:
- Light clothes with long sleeves are not However in case, candidates come in cultural/ customary dress at the Examination Centre, they should report at least an hour before the last reporting time i.e. 12.30 pm so that there is enough time for proper frisking without any inconvenience to the candidate while maintaining the sanctity of the examination.
- Slippers, sandals with low heels are Shoes are not permitted.
c. In case of any deviation required due to unavoidable (medical, etc.) circumstances, specific approval of NTA must be taken before the Admit Cards are issued.
- It is desired that the candidates follow instructions issued by the NTA strictly. This will help NTA in the fair conduct of the
Note: The NTA believes in the sanctity and fairness of conducting the examination, however, it also believes in the sensitivity involved in frisking (girl) candidates and will issue comprehensive instructions accordingly to the staff and other officials at the Examination Centres. The frisking of the female candidates will be done inside a closed enclosure by female staff only.
Chapter 11: Information for Parents/Guardians
11.1 It is expected that parents/guardians will guide their wards appropriately on the following issues before leaving home for appearing in the NEET (UG) – 2022.
- The candidate will not be allowed to enter the Examination Centre after 1:30 p.m. Therefore, the candidate shall leave home well in advance taking into consideration various factors such as traffic, location of the Centre and weather conditions,
- The candidate will follow all the instructions and maintain discipline in the examination/ Examination Hall.
- The candidate will not breach any examination
- The candidate will not use or promote any Unfairmeans activity during the
- In case, the candidate finds another candidate using Unfairmeans in the examination, the same will be immediately informed to the Invigilators on
- The candidate will bring only the following to the Examination Centre:
- Admit Card along with passport size photograph affixed on it;
- One passport-size photograph is to be affixed on Attendance
- Valid Original Identity proof, PwBD certificate, if
- One Post Card Size (4”X6”) color photograph with white background should be pasted on the Proforma downloaded with the Admit Card and should be handed over to Invigilator at
Note: Candidate who does not bring the downloaded proforma with a postcard size (4”X6”) photograph pasted and one passport size photograph will not be allowed to sit in the examination and shall lead to his/her disqualification.
- The candidate will not bring any barred items at the
- The candidate will cooperate with the staff at Examination Centre during
- The candidates will report at the allotted Examination Centre well in advance to make themselves available for compulsory physical
- The candidate will follow the dress code for appearing in NEET (UG) – 2022 If candidates are wearing a customary dress, they need to report at the allotted Examination centre latest by 12:30 pm on the day of the examination.
- The candidate will regularly visit the website (https://neet.nta.nic.in//) and also check registered email/SMS for any updates regarding the
11.2 In case, your ward is found breaching any of the above, the candidate (your ward) will not be permitted to enter in the Examination Centre and will not be allowed to appear in the examination.
- If your ward indulges in any unwanted activities, he/she shall be debarred from taking this examination as per rules and shall also be liable for criminal action and/or any other action deemed fit by the NTA.
- Ensure that your ward reaches the Examination Centre on or before 01:30 pm on the day of For the same, your ward should leave the home well in advance considering traffic, location of the centre and weather conditions, etc. It would be appropriate to visit the Centre a day before the examination to confirm the location, distance, etc. to avoid any problem of reaching late at the centre and then not being allowed to appear in the examination.
Chapter 12:Instructions to be followed in the Examination Hall
- The Examination Centre will be opened two (02) hours before the commencement of the test. No candidate shall be allowed to enter the Examination Centre after 1:30 p.m. Therefore, candidates must ensure that they leave home well in advance considering all facts like traffic, location of the Centre, weather conditions, etc. Candidates are expected to take their seats immediately after the opening of the Examination Hall.
Date of Examination | 17 July 2022 (Sunday) |
Timing and Duration of Examination | 02.00 pm to 05.20 pm (3 hours 20 Minutes) |
· Last Entry to the Examination Centre | 01.30 pm |
· Sitting on the seat in the Examination Hall/Room | 01.15 pm onwards |
· Announcement of Important Instructions and Checking of Admit Cards by the Invigilator | 01.30 pm to
01.45 pm |
· Distribution of Test Booklet by the Invigilator | 01.45 pm |
· Writing of particulars on the Test Booklet by the Candidate | 01.50 pm |
· Test Commences | 02.00 pm |
· Test Concludes | 05.20 pm |
- The candidate must show, on-demand, the Admit Card for admission in the Examination A candidate who does not possess a valid Admit Card shall not be allowed to enter the Examination Hall by the Centre Superintendent.
- A seat with a roll number will be allotted to each Candidates must find out and occupy their allotted seats. If a candidate is found appearing in the Examination from a seat or room other than the allotted one, the candidature shall be cancelled.
- During the examination time, the Invigilator will check Admit Card of the candidates to ascertain the identity of each candidate. The Invigilators will also put their own signature in the place provided in the Answer Sheet and on the Attendance
- A candidate who comes after 01:30 p.m. shall not be permitted to enter the Examination Centre under any circumstances.
- Candidates must bring ONLY the following documents on the day of examination at the test Candidates who will not bring these will not be allowed to sit in the examination.
- Candidates are not allowed to bring any barred item or any item which could be used for Unfair Possession of any such article with the candidates inside the Centre premises will attract the penalties of unfair practices.
- Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the barred items to the venue of the examination as arrangements for safekeeping will not be made and candidates found in possession of these items will not be allowed to enter the Examination Centre.
- No candidate will leave his/her seat or the Examination Room/Hall until the Test concludes as per the schedule. Candidates should not leave the Room/Hall without handing over their OMR Sheets to the invigilator on
- Smoking in the examination centre is strictly
- Water Bottles, Tea, coffee, cold drinks or snacks, are not allowed to be taken by the candidates into the examination centre. Candidates suffering from diabetes are allowed to carry into the examination hall the eatables (with prior intimation) like sugar tablets/fruits (like banana/apple/orange) and transparent water bottles. However, they will not be allowed to carry packed foods like chocolate/ candy/sandwich, etc.
- The Test will start exactly at the time mentioned in the Admit Card and an announcement to this effect will be made by the
- Before the start of the Examination, important instructions will be communicated to the candidates by the Invigilator for strict compliance by the
- A signal will be given at the beginning of the examination and at half-time. A signal will also be given before the closing time when the candidate must stop marking the
- The candidate must sign twice on the Attendance Sheet at the specified place, the first time immediately after the commencement of the examination and the second time while handing over the Answer Sheet to the The candidates are also required to put the Thumb impression in the space provided on the Attendance Sheet.
- The candidate will check and ensure that the Test Booklet contains as many pages as are written on the top of the cover page.
- For those who are unable to appear on the scheduled date of the test for any reason, a re-test shall not be held by the NTA under any circumstances.
- The candidates, suffering from Diabetes, may be taken care of at the Centre as per the instructions issued by NTA.
Chapter 13:Unfairmeans Practices and Breach of Examination Rules
13.1 Definition
Unfair means practice is an activity that allows a candidate to gain an unfair advantage over other candidates. It includes, but is not limited to:
- Being in possession of any item or article which has been prohibited or can be used for unfair practices including any stationery item, communication device, accessories, eatables, ornaments, or any other material or information relevant or not relevant to the examination in the paper concerned.
- Using someone to write the examination (impersonation) or preparing material for copying;
- Breaching examination rules or any direction issued by NTA in connection with the conduct of the NEET (UG) – 2022 examination from time to time.
- Assisting other candidates to engage in malpractices, giving or receiving assistance directly or indirectly of any kind or attempting to do so;
- Writing questions or answers on any material other than the answer sheet given by the Centre Superintendent for writing
- Tearing of Answer Sheet, any page of the test booklet,
- Contacting or communicating or trying to do so with any person, other than the Examination Staff, during the examination time in the Examination Centre.
- Taking away the answer sheet out of the examination hall/room.
- Smuggling out of Question Paper or its part or smuggling out answer sheet or part
- Threatening any of the officials connected with the conduct of the examination or threatening any of the
- Using or attempting to use any other undesirable method or means in connection with the
- Manipulation and fabrication of online documents admit card, rank letter, self- declaration, etc.
- Forceful entry/exit in/from Examination Centre/Hall.
- Use or attempted use of any electronic device after entering the Examination Centre;
- Affixing/uploading of wrong/morphed photographs on the application form/admit card/proforma.
- Erasing or obliterating any information printed on the OMR Answer
- Providing incorrect information and/or overwriting of the Roll No./ Test Booklet No. / own Name of the Candidate / Father’s Name / Mother’s Name / own Signature, on the OMR Answer
r) Making fake claims by manipulating the responses in the OMR sheet one tampering it in any way whatsoever, uploaded on the website for the challenge before or after the declaration of the result.
- Creating obstacles in smooth and fair conduct of the
- Any other malpractices declared as Unfairmeans by the
13.2 Punishment for using Unfairmeans practices
During the course of, before, or after the examination if a candidate indulges in any of the above or similar practices, he/she shall be deemed to have used unfair practices and booked under UNFAIR MEANS (U.F.M.) case. The candidate would be debarred for 3 years in the future and shall also be liable for criminal action and /or any other action as deemed fit.
13.3 Cancellation of Result
- The result of NEET(UG)-2022 of the candidates who indulge in Unfairmeans Practices will be cancelled and will not be
- Similarly, the result of those candidates who appear from the Centre other than the one allotted to them, write on the Test booklet/OMR Sheet of other candidates or allow other candidates to write on their Test Booklet/OMR Sheet will be cancelled (and will not be declared).
Chapter 14: Post Examination Activities and Declaration of Result
14.1 Display of OMR sheets and responses on the website and challenging the grading of questions on OMR
- After the conduct of the examination, NTA will display the scanned images of OMR Answer Sheets and recorded responses by the machine, of all candidates on the website (https://neet.nta.nic.in/). The exact date of display of scanned images of OMR Answer Sheets shall be communicated after the examination on the NTA
- Applicants will be given an opportunity to submit representation against the OMR grading by paying a non-refundable processing fee of ₹ 200/- per question
- Representations made by the candidates against the OMR grading will be verified by the NTA from the actual record and the same will be updated in the data if challenges are found to be correct. However, no intimation in this regard will be sent to an individual
- Applicants are advised to visit the website https://neet.nta.nic.in// for viewing and downloading the image of the OMR Answer Sheet by the
14.2 Display of Answer Key for the challenge
- The NTA will display the Provisional Answer Key of the questions, giving an opportunity to the candidates to challenge, in case of any doubt in the answer key published on the website https://neet.nta.nic.in/. For the exact date of display of the Answer Key, candidates may regularly check updates on the NTA website after the
- Candidates will be given an opportunity to make an online challenge against the provisional Answer Key by paying a non-refundable processing fee of ₹ 200/- per answer challenged, within a specified period as indicated in the Public
- Challenges made by the candidates will be verified by the NTA with the help of a panel of subject experts. If found correct, the answer key will be revised accordingly. Based on the revised Final Answer Key, the result will be prepared and
14.2.4 No individual candidate will be informed about the acceptance/non-acceptance of his/her challenge.
- The key finalized after the challenges will be treated as
14.3 Declaration of Result
- The National Testing Agency will evaluate the Answer Sheets using standard procedure and the result will be displayed on the website: https://neet.nta.nic.in// and thereafter candidates may download their respective Score
- The NTA will prepare the Merit List/ All India Rank (AIR) as per Qualifying Criteria and other norms as mentioned in Chapter 14 of this Bulletin as well as the relevant
regulations/ guidelines of NMC/DGHS/MCC and Ministry of AYUSH / NCISM
/CCIM/NCH/CCH/AACCC, as the case may be. All Candidates appearing in NEET (UG) – 2022 must regularly check updates on the website of NTA (https://neet.nta.nic.in/); MoH&FW (https://www.mohfw.gov.in/); AYUSH Ministry (www.ayush.gov.in); DGHS(https://dghs.gov.in/); Medical Counselling Committee (https://mcc.nic.in/WebinfoUG/Page/Page?PageId=1&LangId=P); (Admission Central Counselling Committee of Ministry of AYUSH (https://aaccc.gov.in/) and other concerned Authorities of participating States / Universities / Institutions, till the conclusion of the final round of Counselling.
14.4 Re-checking/re-evaluation of answer sheets
- The machine–gradable Answer Sheets are evaluated with extreme care and are repeatedly
- There is no provision for re-checking/re-evaluation of the answer This is because of the following reasons:
- The OMRs are machine gradable and are being evaluated through specific software impartial to all.
- The candidates are given an opportunity to make the representation on the OMR gradation of their OMR sheets and also given an opportunity to challenge the answer key in case of any
- No correspondence in this regard will be
14.5 Use of the Result of NEET (UG) – 2022 by other Organizations
The Result of the NEET (UG) – 2022 may be utilized by other Entities of Central/State Governments, in accordance with their respective eligibility criteria / other norms /applicable regulations/guidelines/ rules.
Chapter 15:Merit List and Qualifying Criteria
15.1 Qualifying Criteria
- The National Testing Agency will prepare an All India Merit List of successful candidates for NEET (UG) – 2022 based on the eligibility criteria prescribed by the National Medical Commission and Dental Council of India.
- The eligibility criteria are as follows:
- In order to be eligible for admission to Undergraduate Medical Courses for a particular academic year in case of General, General-EWS, it shall be necessary for a candidate to obtain a minimum of marks at the 50th percentile in National Eligibility Cum Entrance Test to Undergraduate Medical Courses held for the said academic However, in respect of candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes, the minimum marks shall be at the 40th percentile. In respect of candidates with Benchmark, Disabilities specified under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, the minimum marks shall be at 45th percentile for Unreserved Category & GEN-EWS Category candidates and 40th percentile for SC/ST/OBC-NCL candidates. The percentile shall be determined on the basis of the highest marks secured in the All India common merit list in the National Eligibility Cum Entrance Test for admission to Undergraduate Medical Courses.
- Provided when a sufficient number of candidates in the respective categories fail to secure minimum marks as prescribed in National Eligibility Cum Entrance Test held for any academic year for admission to Undergraduate Medical Courses, the Central Government in consultation with the Medical Council of India and Dental Council of India, Central Council of Indian Medicine and Central Council of Homeopathy may at its discretion lower the minimum marks required for admission to Undergraduate Medical Courses for candidates belonging to respective categories and marks so lowered by the Central Government shall be applicable for the said academic year only.
- To be eligible for admission to the Undergraduate Medical Courses, a candidate must have passed in the subjects of Physics, Chemistry, Biology/Biotechnology, and English individually and must have obtained a minimum of 50% marks taken together in Physics, Chemistry, Biology/Bio-technology at the Qualifying Examination as mentioned in Graduate Medical Education Regulations-1997 as amended in 2018 and BDS Course Regulations, 2007 and in addition, must have come in the merit list of National Eligibility Cum Entrance Test for admission to Undergraduate Medical Courses. In respect of the candidates belonging to the SC, ST, and OBC-NCL categories, the marks obtained in Physics, Chemistry, Biology/Biotechnology taken in the qualifying examination and competitive examination (Physics, Chemistry, Biology) must be 40% marks instead of 50%. In respect of candidates with Benchmark, Disabilities specified under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, the minimum marks in qualifying examinations in Physics, Chemistry, and Biology/Biotechnology taken together must be 40% instead of 50% for the Unreserved category & GEN-EWS candidates and 40% for SC/ST/OBC-NCL For admission in BUMS (Bachelor of Unani Medicine and Surgery) Course, the candidate must have passed the 10th standard with Urdu or Arabic or
Persian language as a subject, or clear the test of Urdu of 10th Standard (wherever there is provision to conduct of such test) in the entrance examination conducted by the University or Board or registered Society or Association authorized by the Government to conduct such examination. For admission in the BSMS (Bachelor of Sidhha Medicine and Surgery) course, the Candidate must have passed Tamil as one of the subjects in the 10th Standard/in Higher Secondary course or Candidates shall have to study Tamil as a subject during the First Professional course.
- Candidates who have passed Class 12 from Open School or as private candidates shall not be eligible to appear for the ‘National Eligibility Cum Entrance Test’. Furthermore, a study of Biology/Biotechnology as an Additional Subject at Class 12 level also shall not be *
*(Note: “The proviso in italics has been a subject matter of challenge before the Hon’ble High Court of Delhi, Hon’ble High Court of Allahabad, Lucknow Bench, and Hon’ble High Court of Madhya Pradesh at Jabalpur. The provisions of the regulations disqualifying recognized Open School Board candidates and the candidates who have studied Biology/Biotechnology as an Additional Subject has been struck down.”)Provided that a candidate who has appeared in the qualifying examination, the result of which has not been declared, may be provisionally permitted to take up the competitive entrance examination and in case of selection for admission to the Undergraduate Medical Courses, he/she shall not be admitted to that course until he/she fulfills the eligibility criteria as specified above. For details, candidates may refer to the Graduate Medical Education Regulations, 1997 and BDS Course Regulations, 2007, the Indian Medicine Central Council (Minimum Standards of Education in Indian Medicine) Regulation, and the Homeopathy (Degree Course) Regulations,
- The criteria for minimum qualifying marks to be eligible for admission to MBBS courses shall also be applicable to concerned INIs.
A list of the successful candidates in order of All India Rank based on the marks obtained in the National Eligibility Cum Entrance Test (NEET) UG – 2022 will be prepared by the NTA.
- The inter-se-merit of candidates for tie-breaking
In case of two or more candidates obtain equal marks/percentile scores in the NEET (UG) – 2022, the inter-se-merit shall be determined as follows:
- Candidate obtaining higher marks/percentile score in Biology (Botany & Zoology) in the Test, followed by,
- Candidate obtaining higher marks/percentile score in Chemistry in the Test, followed by,
- Candidate obtaining higher marks/percentile score in Physics in the Test, followed by,
- Candidate with less proportion of the number of attempted incorrect answers and correct answers in all the subjects in the Test,
- Candidate with less proportion of a number of attempted incorrect answers and correct answers in Biology (Botany & Zoology) in the Test, followed by
- Candidate with less proportion of a number of attempted incorrect answers and correct answers in Chemistry in the Test, followed by
- Candidate with less proportion of a number of attempted incorrect answers and correct answers in Physics in the Test, followed by
- Candidate Older in Age, followed by
- Application Number in ascending order
15.3 Merit list for counselling under 15% All India Quota
The merit list of the eligible and successful candidates who have opted for 15% of All India quota seats will be prepared by the NTA on the basis of marks obtained in the NEET (UG)
– 2022. The list of successful candidates shall be forwarded to the Directorate General of Health Services (Medical Examination Cell), Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India, and Ministry of AYUSH, Govt. of India for the purpose of allotment of seats by Online Counselling to 15% All India Quota Seats.
15.4 Merit list for seats other than 15% All India Quota
- NTA will provide All India Rank and Result will be shared with the DGHS, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Govt of India and Ministry of AYUSH, of India to provide the same to the Admitting Authorities.
- Admitting Authorities will invite applications for
- The admitting/counselling authorities will draw a merit list of the candidates based on All India Rank in the respective categories declared by the candidates at the time of applying for admission/counselling as per State applicable
Chapter 16:Eligibility Criteria/Quota of Seats/Reservation/Result Criteria/ Counselling for Admission to BAMS/BSMS/BUMS/BHMS Courses
16.1 Admission to all seats of BAMS, BSMS, BUMS, and BHMS Courses through NEET (UG) – 2022*
Admissions to all seats of Undergraduate Ayurveda, Siddha, Unani, and Homoeopathy Courses will be done through NEET (UG) – 2022 as per the provisions of the Indian Medicine Central Council (Minimum Standards of Education in Indian Medicine) Amendment Regulations (2018) and Homeopathy (Degree Course) Amendment Regulations (2018) under Indian Medicine Central Council Act 1970 and the Homoeopathy Central Council Act, 1973, as notified by the Central Council of Indian Medicine and Central Council of Homeopathy respectively (which are Regulatory Bodies of the above-mentioned Courses under the Ministry of AYUSH).
16.1.1 *Eligibility Criteria for admission to BAMS/BSMS/BUMS /BHMS Courses
- The candidate must have passed intermediate Class 12 or its equivalent examination recognized by the concerned State Government and Education Board with the subjects of Physics, Chemistry, Biology, and English individually and must have obtained a minimum of 50% marks taken together in Physics, Chemistry and Biology at the aforesaid qualifying examination in the case of general category and 40% Marks in the case of the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward
- In respect of persons with disability candidates specified under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 (49 of 2016), the minimum qualifying marks in the said qualifying examination in Physics, Chemistry, and Biology shall be 40%.
- No candidate shall be admitted to BAMS, BSMS, BUMS, and BHMS Degree Courses unless he has attained the age of seventeen years on or before the 31st December of the year of his admission in the first year of the course and not more than of twenty-five years on or before the 31st December of the year of admission in the first year of the course. Provided that the upper age limit may be relaxed by five years in the case of the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes, and physically handicapped
Note:
- For admission to the BUMS course, the candidate must have also passed the 10th standard with Urdu or Arabic or Persian language as a subject, or clear the test of Urdu of 10th Standard (wherever there is provision to conduct of such test) in the entrance examination conducted by the University or Board or registered Society or Association authorized by the Government to conduct such examination.
- For admission to the BSMS course, the Candidate must have also passed Tamil as one of the subjects in the 10th Standard or in the Higher Secondary course or the candidate shall have to study Tamil as a subject during the First Professional course.
- *Please see the list of Abbreviations
16.1.2 *The Quota of Seats for Admission to BAMS/ BSMS/BUMS /BHMS Courses:
- All India quota
- All India quota Government
- All India quota
- State quota/ Institutional quota.
- Central Universities/National
- Deemed to be
- Management/NRI
16.1.3 *Reservation of Seats for SC, ST, OBC, EWS, PwBD, etc. for admission to BAMS/BSMS/BUMS /BHMS Courses
Reservation Policy of the Central Government in All India Quota seats (Govt./Govt. aided/National Institutes/Central Universities) counseling is as follows:
Ø SC- 15%
- ST- 5%
Ø PwBD- 5% Horizontal Reservation
- OBC (Non- Creamy Layer)- 27 % Only in National Institutes/Central Universities
Ø EWS- 10% Only in National Institutes/Central Universities
Note: Guidelines regarding admission of students with “Specified Disabilities” under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 with respect to admission in BAMS/BSMS/BUMS course shall be as per the criteria prescribed in the regulations as per the CCIM Gazette notification dated 18/06/2019 and in BHMS as per the CCH Gazette notification dated 19/06/2019.
In case of State quota seats counseling under other than minimum 15% All India Quota seats, the reservation policy of the concerned State Govt. shall apply.
16.1.4 *Percentile criteria for declaration of Result / Ranking for BAMS, BSMS, BUMS, and BHMS Courses.
In order to be eligible for admission to under-graduate BAMS, BSMS, BUMS, and BHMS Courses, it shall be necessary for a candidate to obtain a minimum of marks at 50th percentile in the ‘National Eligibility Entrance Test for undergraduate course’ held for the said academic year:
Provided that in respect of-
- For candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes, the minimum marks shall be at the 40th percentile;
- candidates with benchmark disabilities specified under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 (49 of 2016), the minimum marks shall be at 45th percentile in the case of general category and 40th percentile in the case of the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes.
16.1.5 *Counselling Provisions for admission to BAMS, BSMS, BUMS, and 15% Courses.
- An All India Merit List of the qualified candidates shall be prepared on the basis of All India Rank in the Merit List of the NEET (UG) – 2022 and candidates shall be admitted
to Undergraduate Ayurveda, Siddha, Unani and Homeopathy Course (ASU & H Courses) from the said list only, with existing reservation policy.
- Counselling for all India quota seats of Ayurveda, Siddha, Unani & Homoeopathy Government, Government aided Institutes, Central Universities, National Institutes, Deemed to be Universities will be conducted by Ayush Admissions Central Counseling Committee (AACCC), and counseling for AIQ seats of Private ASU & H Institutes will be conducted by an authority designated by Central Government and Counselling for State quota seats will be conducted by respective State Government counselling authority as per the provisions of Regulations notified under IMCC Act, 1970 and HCC ACT,
- *The details filled by the candidate like candidate category, phone number, and email, in NEET (UG)-2022 Online Application will be used for the purpose of All India quota seats counselling. No request for change in candidate category at the time of all India quota seats counselling will be entertained by the counselling authority for all India quota seats designated by the Central Government.
- The NTA will have no responsibility with regard to the matters relating to counselling/admission to BAMS, BSMS, BUMS, and BHMS
- For further details regarding the counselling/admission to BAMS/BSMS/BUMS/BHMS Courses, the following Authorities may be contacted :
- The Director (SRKV), Ministry of AYUSH, AYUSH Bhawan, B-Block, GPO Complex, INA, New Delhi – 110023,
(Email : counseling-ayush@gov.in;
Website: https://aaccc.gov.in/aacccug/home/homepage ) for administrative issues only.
- AYUSH Admissions Central Counseling Committee (AACCC), Ministry of AYUSH
(Email: counseling-aaccc@aiia.gov.in;
Website: https://aaccc.gov.in/aacccug/home/homepage) for queries related to all India quota seat counseling only.
- AYUSH Admissions Counselling Committee of the Directorate of AYUSH of respective State Governments /
Important Information for the Application Process
- Regarding the application process and other details, the aspiring Candidates of BAMS/BSMS/BUMS/BHMS Courses may peruse the relevant information
/documents mentioned in other chapters/ paras, corresponding appendices, apart from the provisions mentioned above in this Chapter.
- The relevant Regulations / Guidelines / Instructions / Notifications / Circulars of the Ministry of AYUSH /AYUSH Admissions Central Counseling Committee/ National Commission for Indian System of Medicine/ Central Council of Indian Medicine / National Commission of Homoeopathy /Central Council of Homeopathy, as the case may be, may be referred to for those matters, which are not mentioned above in this Chapter or in any other Chapter
/ Appendices of this Information Bulletin.
[Source: Ministry of AYUSH (MoA)]
Chapter 17:Miscellaneous Provisions
17.1 Caution Notice
- Candidates are advised to refer to only NEET (UG) website: https://neet.nta.nic.in/ for authentic information and periodic
- Candidates are advised to be careful about any wrong information/false claim of any person or institute regarding the NEET (UG) Examination or securing a seat on the basis of its
- Candidates are advised to bring any such information to the notice of NTA through e- mail at neet@nta.ac.in.
17.2 Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA)
- NEET (UG) 2022 is a proprietary Examination and is conducted by NTA on behalf of NMC, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare (MoHFW). The contents of this exam are confidential, proprietary and are owned by NTA/NMC/MoHFW and explicitly prohibits the candidate from publishing, reproducing, or transmitting any or some content of this test, in whole or in part, in any form or by any means, verbal or written, electronic or mechanical or for any purpose. Hangouts, Blogs, etc. using either one’s own account or proxy account (s).
- By registering for and /or appearing in NEET (UG) – 2022, the candidate explicitly agrees to the above Non-Disclosure Agreement and general terms of use for NEET (UG)
– 2022 as contained in this Information Bulletin of NEET (UG) – 2022 and website https://neet.nta.nic.in/.
- Violation of any act or breach of the same shall be liable for penal action and cancellation of the candidature at the bare
17.3 Correspondence regarding NEET (UG) 2022
The Candidates are required to submit their genuine queries/grievances relating to their Candidature for the NEET (UG) – 2022 Exam as a matter of course through the QRS System of NTA available on the website of NTA (https://neet.nta.nic.in//). The email query/grievance relating to this Exam may be addressed to: neet@nta.ac.in, only if a response is not received from NTA in QRS. However, such email should not be anonymous and must contain: the name, registration/application no/roll no., postal address of the Candidate, and contact number of the sender. An email containing vague or general queries shall not be entertained. Considering the volume of queries/questions received from the Candidates and /or on their behalf, NTA cannot guarantee to reply to each and every email received from the Candidates. In no case, repetitive emails on the same issue/matter would be entertained. Queries shall not be entertained from persons claiming to be representatives, associates, or officiate of the applicant candidate.
The following information shall not be revealed by phone or email:
- Internal documentation/status.
- The internal decision-making process of Any claim/counterclaim thereof.
- Dates & venue of internal meetings or name of the staff/officers dealing with
- Any information which in the opinion of NTA cannot be
(Note: In terms of the Communication (vide Letter No. 35-5/2017-TS.I dated 24.11.2020) of the Department of Higher Education, Ministry of Education, Govt. of India, the complaints/suggestions/grievances relating to NEET (UG) may be addressed directly to NTA or to the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and /or Administrative Head of the concerned Organization, for redressal).
17.4 Common Services Centres/Facilitation Centres
- Candidates who are not well conversant with submitting the online application due to various constraints can use the services of Common Services Centre, Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, Government of India under the Digital India initiatives of Hon’ble Prime The Common Services Centre (CSC) scheme is a part of the ambitious National e-Governance Plan (NeGP) of theGovernment of India and is managed at each villagepanchayat level by a Village Level Entrepreneur (VLE).
- There are more than 1.5 lakhs Common Services Centres (CSC) across the country which will provide the desired support to candidates from urban as well as rural areas in online submission of Application Form and payment of fee through e-wallet. Thelist of the Common Services Centre is available on the website:csc.gov.in.
17.5 Weeding out Rules
The record of National Eligibility cum Entrance Test NEET (UG)-2022 would be preserved only up to 90 days from the date of declaration of result.
17.6 Legal Jurisdiction
All disputes pertaining to the conduct of the NEET (UG) – 2022 Examination including Results shall fall within the jurisdiction of Delhi/New Delhi only. Further, any legal question arising out of the Examination shall be entertained only when raised within 30 days from the declaration of result.
(Note: – In terms of the Communication (vide Letter No. 35-5/2017-TS.I dated 24.11.2020) of the Department of Higher Education, Ministry of Education, Govt. of India, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (and not the Ministry of Education) has to defend the interest of Union of India in the Court Cases relating to NEET (UG).
Appendix-I
The National Medical Commission Act (2019)
Appendix II
Self-Declaration Proforma for Candidates belonging to UT of J&K | |
Application no: | |
Photo | |
I,
……………………………………………………………………………………..Son/Daughter of …………………………………. do hereby solemnly affirm and state as follows: |
|
1) That I am not eligible to appear for the Undergraduate Medical Courses seats in the UT of J&K and hence not eligible to seek admission in Medical/Dental/Ayurveda/Siddha/Unani/Homeopathy Colleges of UT of J&K. | |
2) That I am not domiciled in the UT of J&K. | |
3) That I further declare that the said declaration is made by me on my own after knowing and understanding all the rules and their implications. | |
4) That if the above statement of mine is found incorrect at any time, my candidature/ admission in NEET (UG) – 2022, Undergraduate Medical Courses be cancelled and legal action as the deemed fit may be initiated against me. | |
Date: | |
Left-hand thumb impression | Signature of Candidate |
Name:
Father’s Name: Mother’s Name: Address: |
This declaration will be auto-generated and submitted online only at the time of filling the online application form by the candidates belonging to UT of J&K and Ladakh and claiming 15% seats under All India Quota.
Appendix III State Medical Education Directorates & Offices where Counselling related information is available |
|||
BIHAR | |||
The Director of Medical Education Directorate of Health Services, Department of Health & Family Welfare,
Vikas Bhawan Patna-800001, Bihar |
Telephone No. : 0612-2234992
Website : http://health.bih.nic.in/ E-mail ID : as-health-bih@nic.in |
||
CHANDIGARH | |||||
The Director Principal | Telephone No. | : | 0172-2601023-4321 | ||
Govt. Medical College Hospital, | Fax No. | : | 0772-2609360 | ||
Sector-32, Chandigarh | Website | : | www.gmch.gov.in | ||
E-mail ID | : | dpgmcc@yahoo.com | |||
CHHATTISGARH | |||||
The Director of Medical Education | Telephone No. | : | 0771-4264052, 2221621 | ||
Directorate of Medical Education | Fax No. | : | 0771-2234451 | ||
Old Nurses Hostel, Mantralaya Complex, | Website | : | www.cgdme.in | ||
Raipur-492001, Chhatisgarh | E-mail ID | : | cgdme@rediffmail.com | ||
DADRA AND NAGAR HAVELI | |||||
The Director of Education | Telephone No. | : | 0260-2630792 | ||
1st Floor, Building No.5, | Fax No. | : | 0260-2642006 | ||
P.W.D. Office Complex, | Website | : | http://dnh.nic.in/ | ||
Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Silvassa | E-mail ID | : | asde-admn-dnh@nic.in | ||
DAMAN & DIU (UT) | |||||
The Assistant Director (Technical Education) | Telephone No. Fax No.
Website E-mail ID |
:
: : : |
0260-2231707, 2230468
0260-2251351 |
||
UT Administration of Daman & Diu | |||||
Government Polytechnic, | |||||
Varkund, MotaFalia | |||||
Nani Daman-396210 | |||||
DELHI | |||||
Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University | Phone Fax
E-Mail Id |
:
: : |
+91-11-25302170,
+91-11- 25302111 |
||
Sector – 16C, Dwarka, | |||||
New Delhi – 110078 | |||||
GOA | |||||
The Assistant Director | Telephone No. | : | 0832-2416370 | ||
Centralized Admission Division (CAD) | Fax No. | : | 0832-2413572 | ||
Directorate of Technical Education, | Website | : | www.dtegoa.gov.in | ||
Alto-Porvorim, Goa-403571 | E-mail ID | : | dir-dte.goa@nic.in | ||
GUJARAT | |||||
The Dean | Telephone No. | : | 079-22680074 | ||
B.J. Medical College, | Fax No. | : | 079-22683067 | ||
Asarwa, Ahmedabad | Website | : | www.bjmc.org | ||
Gujarat | E-mail ID | : | dean.bjmc@hotmail.com | ||
HARYANA | |||||
The Director | Telephone No. | : | 0172-2560799 | ||
Medical Education & Research Haryana | Fax No. | : | 0172-2566556 | ||
Paryatan Bhawan, | Website | : | haryanahealth.nic.in | ||
Bays No.55-58, | E-mail ID | : | dmer.haryana@gmail.com | ||
Sector-2, Panchkula. | |||||
HIMACHAL PRADESH | |||||
The Director | Telephone No. | : | 0177-2624895 | ||
Medical Education & Research, | Fax No. | : | 0177-2620733 | ||
Block No.06, SDA Complex, | Website | : | www.hp.gov.in/hpdmer | ||
Kusumti, Shimla-171009. | E-mail ID | : | directorateme@yahoo.com | ||
JAMMU & KASHMIR |
The Director (Health Services) Directorate of Health Services, Jammu Division,Near MLA’s Hostel, Jammu Tawi Jammu – 180001 | Telephone No. Fax No.
Website E-mail ID |
:
: : : |
0191-2546338 (O)
0191-2549632, 2566599 |
||
The Director (Health Services)
Directorate of Health Services, Old Secretariat (J & K), Srinagar, Kashmir |
Telephone No. Fax No.
Website E-mail ID |
:
: : : |
0194-2452052 (O)
0194-24527313 http://www.jkhealth.org amarist786@gmail.com, dhsk76@gmail.com |
||
JHARKHAND | |||||
The Controller of Examination
Jharkhand Combined Entrance Competitive Examination Board, Science & Technology Campus, SirkhaToli, Namkum-Tupudana Road, Namkum, Ranchi -834023 |
Telephone No. Fax No.
Website E-mail ID |
:
: : : |
0651-6999170-71
0651-2230336 |
||
KARNATAKA | |||||
Directorate of Medical Education Anand Rao Circle
Bangalore-560009 |
Telephone No. : 080-22870060 Fax No. : 080-22875798
Website : http://www.karnataka.gov.in/dmekarnataka E-mail ID : dmekarnataka2021@gmail.com |
||||
KERALA | |||||
The Commissioner for Entrance Examinations Vth Floor, Housing Board Buildings,
Santhi Nagar, Thiruvananthapuram-695001 |
Telephone No. Fax No.
Website E-mail ID |
:
: : : |
0471-2332120, 2338487
0471-2337228 |
||
LADAKH (UT) | |||||
The Director (Health Services) Directorate of Health Services, Jammu Division,
Near MLA’s Hostel, Jammu Tawi Jammu – 180001 |
Telephone No. Fax No.
Website E-mail ID |
:
: : : |
0191-2546338 (O)
0191-2549632, 2566599 |
||
LAKSHADWEEP (UT) | |||||
The Director of Education Department of Education UT of Lakshadweep. | Telephone No. Fax No.
Website E-mail ID |
:
: : : |
04896-262241
04896-262264 |
||
MAHARASHTRA | |||||
COMMISSIONERATE, STATE COMMON ENTRANCE TEST CELL
8th Floor, New Excelsior Building, A. K. Nayak Marg, Fort, Mumbai-400001 |
Telephone No.
Website: E-mail ID |
: 022-22016157/59/53,
: 022-22016134/19/28 |
|||
MIZORAM | |||||
The Director
Higher & Technical Education, Govt. of Mizoram, Mcdonald Hill, Zarkawt, Aizawl, Mizoram |
Telephone No. Fax No.
Website E-mail ID |
:
: : : |
0389-2340926
0389-2340927 |
Appendix-IV
Core Syllabus PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY, AND BIOLOGY (HIGHER SECONDARY STAGE) For National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test NEET (UG)-2022, the National Medical Commission of India (NMC) recommends the following syllabus for admission to MBBS/BDS/BAMS/BSMS/BUMS/BHMS courses across the country, after review of various State syllabi as well as those prepared by CBSE, NCERT, and COBSE. This is to establish uniformity across the country, keeping in view the relevance of different areas in medical education. |
|||||
Physics syllabus of class 11th | Physics syllabus of Class 12th | ||||
Sr. No. | Topics | Sr. No. | Topics | ||
1 | Physical-world and measurement | 1 | Electrostatics | ||
2 | Kinematics | 2 | Current Electricity | ||
3 | Laws of Motion | 3 | Magnetic Effects of Current and
Magnetism |
||
4 | Work, Energy and Power | 4 | Electromagnetic Induction and
Alternating Currents |
||
5 | Motion of System of Particles and Rigid
Body |
5 | Electromagnetic Waves | ||
6 | Gravitation | 6 | Optics | ||
7 | Properties of Bulk Matter | 7 | Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation | ||
8 | Thermodynamics | 8 | Atoms and Nuclei | ||
9 | Behaviour of Perfect Gas and Kinetic
Theory |
9 | Electronic Devices | ||
10 | Oscillations and Waves | ||||
Chemistry syllabus of class 11th | Chemistry syllabus of class 12th | ||||
Sr. No | Topics | Sr. No. | Topics | ||
1 | Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry | 1 | Solid State | ||
2 | Structure of Atom | 2 | Solutions | ||
3 | Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties | 3 | Electrochemistry | ||
4 | Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure | 4 | Chemical Kinetics | ||
5 | States of Matter: Gases and Liquids | 5 | Surface Chemistry | ||
6 | Thermodynamics | 6 | General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements | ||
7 | Equilibrium | 7 | p- Block Elements | ||
8 | Redox Reactions | 8 | d and f Block Elements | ||
9 | Hydrogen | 9 | Coordination Compounds | ||
10 | s-Block Element (Alkali and Alkaline earth metals) | 10 | Haloalkanes and Haloarenes | ||
11 | Some p-Block Elements | 11 | Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers | ||
12 | Organic Chemistry- Some Basic Principles and Techniques | 12 | Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids | ||
13 | Hydrocarbons | 13 | Organic Compounds Containing
Nitrogen |
||
14 | Environmental Chemistry | 14 | Biomolecules | ||
15 | Polymers | ||||
16 | Chemistry in Everyday Life |
Biology syllabus of class 11th | Biology syllabus of class 12th | ||||
Sr.
No. |
Topics | Sr. No | Topics | ||
1 | Diversity in Living World | 1 | Reproduction | ||
2 | Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants | 2 | Genetics and Evolution | ||
3 | Cell Structure and Function | 3 | Biology and Human Welfare | ||
4 | Plant Physiology | 4 | Biotechnology and Its Applications | ||
5 | Human physiology | 5 | Ecology and environment | ||
PHYSICS: CONTENTS OF CLASS XI SYLLABUS
UNIT I: Physical World and Measurement • Physics: Scope and excitement; nature of physical laws; Physics, technology, and society. • Need for measurement: Units of measurement; systems of units; SI units, fundamental and derived units. Length, mass, and time measurements; accuracy and precision of measuring instruments; errors in measurement; significant figures. • Dimensions of physical quantities, dimensional analysis, and its applications. UNIT II: Kinematics • A frame of reference, Motion in a straight line; Position-time graph, speed, and velocity. Uniform and non-uniform motion, average speed, and instantaneous velocity. Uniformly accelerated motion, velocity-time, and position-time graphs, for uniformly accelerated motion (graphical treatment). • Elementary concepts of differentiation and integration for describing motion. Scalar and vector quantities: Position and displacement vectors, general vectors, general vectors and notation, equality of vectors, multiplication of vectors by a real number; addition and subtraction of vectors. Relative velocity. • Unit vectors. Resolution of a vector in a plane-rectangular component. • Scalar and Vector products of Vectors. Motion in a plane. Cases of uniform velocity and uniform acceleration- projectile motion. Uniform circular motion. UNIT III: Laws of Motion · Intuitive concept of force. Inertia, Newton’s first law of motion; momentum and Newton’s second law of motion; impulse; Newton’s third law of motion. Law of conservation of linear momentum and its applications. • Equilibrium of concurrent forces. Static and Kinetic friction, laws of friction, rolling friction, lubrication. • Dynamics of uniform circular motion. Centripetal force, examples of circular motion (vehicle on level circular road, vehicle on banked road). UNIT IV: Work, Energy, and Power • Work done by a constant force and variable force; kinetic energy, work-energy theorem, power. • Notion of potential energy, the potential energy of a spring, conservative forces; conservation of mechanical energy (kinetic and potential energies); nonconservative forces; motion in a vertical circle, elastic and inelastic collisions in one and two dimensions. UNIT V: Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Body |
- Centre of mass of a two-particle system, momentum conservation, and centre of mass motion. Centre of mass of a rigid body; centre of mass of uniform
- Moment of a force,-torque, angular momentum, conservation of angular momentum with some
- Equilibrium of rigid bodies, rigid body rotation, and equation of rotational motion, comparison of linear and rotational motions; the moment of inertia, the radius of gyration. Values of M.I. for simple geometrical objects (no derivation). Statement of parallel and perpendicular axes theorems and their
UNIT VI: Gravitation
- Kepler’s laws of planetary motion. The universal law of gravitation. Acceleration due to gravity and its variation with altitude and
- Gravitational potential energy; gravitational potential. Escape velocity, orbital velocity of a Geostationary satellites.
UNIT VII: Properties of Bulk Matter
- Elastic behavior, Stress-strain relationship. Hooke’s law, Young’s modulus, bulk modulus, shear, modulus of rigidity, poisson’s ratio; elastic energy.
- Viscosity, Stokes’ law, terminal velocity, Reynold’s number, streamline and turbulent flow. Critical velocity, Bernoulli’s theorem and its
- Surface energy and surface tension, angle of contact, excess of pressure, application of surface tension ideas to drops, bubbles and capillary
- Heat, temperature, thermal expansion; thermal expansion of solids, liquids, and Anomalous expansion. Specific heat capacity: Cp, Cv- calorimetry; change of state – latent heat.
- Heat transfer- conduction and thermal conductivity, convection and Qualitative ideas of Black Body Radiation, Wein’s displacement law, and Green House effect.
- Newton’s law of cooling and Stefan’s
UNIT VIII: Thermodynamics
- Thermal equilibrium and definition of temperature (zeroth law of Thermodynamics). Heat, work and internal First law of thermodynamics. Isothermal and adiabatic processes.
- Second law of the thermodynamics: Reversible and irreversible processes. Heat engines and
UNIT IX: Behaviour of Perfect Gas and Kinetic Theory
- Equation of state of a perfect gas, work done on compressing a
- Kinetic theory of gases: Assumptions, concept of pressure. Kinetic energy and temperature; degrees of freedom, law of equipartition of energy (statement only) and application to specific heat capacities of gases; concept of mean free
UNIT X: Oscillations and Waves
- Periodic motion-period, frequency, displacement as a function of Periodic functions. Simple harmonic motion(SHM) and its equation; phase; oscillations of a spring-restoring force and force constant; energy in SHM –Kinetic and potential energies; simple pendulum-derivation of expression for its time period; free, forced and damped oscillations (qualitative ideas only), resonance.
- Wave motion. Longitudinal and transverse waves, speed of wave motion. Displacement relation for a progressive wave. Principle of superposition of waves, reflection of waves, standing waves in strings and organ pipes, fundamental mode and Beats. Doppler effect.
PHYSICS: CONTENTS OF CLASS XII SYLLABUS
UNIT I: Electrostatics
- Electric charges and their conservation. Coulomb’s law-force between two point charges, forces between multiple charges; superposition principle and continuous charge
- Electric field, electric field due to a point charge, electric field lines; electric dipole, electric field due to a dipole; torque on a dipole in a uniform electric field.
- Electric flux, statement of Gauss’s theorem and its applications to find field due to infinitely long straight wire, uniformly charged infinite plane sheet and uniformly charged thin spherical shell (field inside and outside)
- Electric potential, potential difference, electric potential due to a point charge, a dipole and system of charges: equipotential surfaces, electrical potential energy of a system of two point charges and of electric diploes in an electrostatic field.
- Conductors and insulators, free charges and bound charges inside a conductor. Dielectrics and electric polarization, capacitors and capacitance, combination of capacitors in series and in parallel, capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with and without dielectric medium between the plates, energy stored in a capacitor, Van de Graaff
UNIT II: Current Electricity
- Electric current, the flow of electric charges in a metallic conductor, drift velocity and mobility, and their relation with electric current; Ohm’s law, electrical resistance, V-I characteristics (liner and non-linear), electrical energy and power, electrical resistivity, and
- Carbon resistors, color code for carbon resistors; series and parallel combinations of resistors; temperature dependence of
- Internal resistance of a cell, potential difference and emf of a cell, combination of cells in series and in
- Kirchhoff’s laws and simple Wheatstone bridge, metre bridge.
- Potentiometer-principle and applications to measure potential difference, and for comparing emf of two cells; measurement of internal resistance of a cell.
UNIT III: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
- Concept of magnetic field, Oersted’s experiment. Biot-Savart law and its application to current carrying circular loop.
- Ampere’s law and its applications to infinitely long straight wire, straight and toroidal solenoids. Force on a moving charge in uniform magnetic and electric Cyclotron.
- Force on a current-carrying conductor in a uniform magnetic field. Force between two parallel current-carrying conductors-definition of ampere. Torque experienced by a current loop in a magnetic field; moving coil galvanometer-its current sensitivity and conversion to ammeter and
- Current loop as a magnetic dipole and its magnetic dipole moment. Magnetic dipole moment of a revolving electron. Magnetic field intensity due to a magnetic dipole (bar magnet) along its axis and perpendicular to its axis. Torque on a magnetic dipole (bar magnet) in a uniform magnetic field; bar magnet as an equivalent solenoid, magnetic field lines; Earth’s magnetic field and magnetic
- Para-, dia-and ferro-magnetic substances, with
- Electromagnetic and factors affecting their Permanent magnets.
UNIT IV: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
- Electromagnetic induction; Faraday’s law, induced emf and current; Lenz’s Law, Eddy currents. Self and mutual
- Alternating currents, peak and rms value of alternating current/ voltage; reactance and impedance; LC oscillations (qualitative treatment only), LCR series circuit, resonance; power in AC circuits, wattles
- AC generator and
UNIT V: Electromagnetic Waves
- Need for displacement
- Electromagnetic waves and their characteristics (qualitative ideas only). Transverse nature of electromagnetic
- Electromagnetic spectrum (radio waves, microwaves, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, x-rays, gamma rays) including elementary facts about their
UNIT VI: Optics
- Reflection of light, spherical mirrors, mirror formula. Refraction of light, total internal reflection and its applications optical fibres, refraction at spherical surfaces, lenses, thin lens formula, lens- maker’s Magnification, power of a lens, combination of thin lenses in contact combination of a lens and a mirror. Refraction and dispersion of light through a prism.
- Scattering of light- blue colour of the sky and reddish appearance of the sun at sunrise and
- Optical instruments: Human eye, image formation and accommodation, correction of eye defects (myopia and hypermetropia) using lenses.
- Microscopes and astronomical telescopes (reflecting and refracting) and their magnifying
- Wave optics: Wavefront and Huygens’ principle, reflection and refraction of plane wave at a plane surface using
- Proof of laws of reflection and refraction using Huygens’
- Interference, Young’s double hole experiment and expression for fringe width, coherent sources and sustained interference of
- Diffraction due to a single slit, width of central
- Resolving power of microscopes and astronomical telescopes. Polarisation, plane polarized light; Brewster’s law, uses of plane polarized light and
UNIT VII: Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation
- Photoelectric effect, Hertz and Lenard’s observations; Einstein’s photoelectric equation- particle nature of light.
- Matter waves- wave nature of particles, de Broglie Davisson-Germer experiment (experimental details should be omitted; only conclusion should be explained).
UNIT VIII: Atoms and Nuclei
- Alpha- particle scattering experiments; Rutherford’s model of atom; Bohr model, energy levels, hydrogen Composition and size of nucleus, atomic masses, isotopes, isobars; isotones.
- Radioactivity- alpha, beta and gamma particles/ rays and their properties decay Mass-energy relation, mass defect; binding energy per nucleon and its variation with mass number, nuclear fission and fusion.
UNIT IX: Electronic Devices
- Energy bands in solids (qualitative ideas only), conductors, insulators and semiconductors; semiconductor diode- I-V characteristics in forward and reverse bias, diode as a rectifier; I-V characteristics of LED, diode, solar cell, and Zener diode; Zener diode as a voltage regulator. Junction transistor, transistor action, characteristics of a transistor; transistor as an amplifier (common emitter configuration) and oscillator. Logic gates (OR, AND, NOT, NAND and NOR). Transistor as a
CHEMISTRY: CONTENTS OF CLASS XI SYLLABUS
UNIT I: Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
- General Introduction: Important and scope of
- Laws of chemical combination, Dalton’s atomic theory: concept of elements, atoms and
- Atomic and molecular masses. Mole concept and molar mass; percentage composition and empirical and molecular formula; chemical reactions, stoichiometry and calculations based on
UNIT II: Structure of Atom
- Atomic number, isotopes and isobars. Concept of shells and subshells, dual nature of matter and light, de Broglie’s relationship, Heisenberg uncertainty principle, concept of orbital, quantum numbers, shapes of s,p and d orbitals, rules for filling electrons in orbitals- Aufbau principle, Pauli exclusion principles and Hund’s rule, electronic configuration of atoms, stability of half filled and completely filled
UNIT III: Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
- Modern periodic law and long form of periodic table, periodic trends in properties of elements- atomic radii, ionic radii, ionization enthalpy, electron gain enthalpy, electrone gativity,
UNIT IV: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
- Valence electrons, ionic bond, covalent bond, bond parameters, Lewis structure, polar character of covalent bond, valence bond theory, resonance, geometry of molecules, VSEPR theory, concept of hybridization involving s, p and d orbitals and shapes of some simple molecules, molecular orbital theory of homonuclear diatomic molecules (qualitative idea only). Hydrogen
UNIT V: States of Matter: Gases and Liquids
- Three states of matter, intermolecular interactions, types of bonding, melting and boiling points, role of gas laws of elucidating the concept of the molecule, Boyle’s law, Charle’s law, Gay Lussac’s law, Avogadro’s law, ideal behaviour of gases, empirical derivation of gas equation. Avogadro number, ideal gas equation. Kinetic energy and molecular speeds (elementary idea), deviation from ideal behaviour, liquefaction of gases, critical
- Liquid State- Vapour pressure, viscosity and surface tension (qualitative idea only, no mathematical derivations).
UNIT VI : Thermodynamics
- First law of thermodynamics-internal energy and enthalpy, heat capacity and specific heat, measurement of U and H, Hess’s law of constant heat summation, enthalpy of : bond dissociation, combustion, formation, atomization, sublimation, phase transition, ionization, solution and
- Introduction of entropy as state function, Second law of thermodynamics, Gibbs energy change for spontaneous and non-spontaneous process, criteria for equilibrium and
- Third law of thermodynamics- Brief
UNIT VII: Equilibrium
- Equilibrium in physical and chemical processes, dynamic nature of equilibrium, law of chemical equilibrium, equilibrium constant, factors affecting equilibrium- Le Chatelier’s principle; ionic equilibrium- ionization of acids and bases, strong and weak electrolytes, degree of ionization, ionization of polybasic acids, acid strength, concept of , Hydrolysis of salts (elementary idea)., buffer solutions, Henderson equation, solubility product, common ion effect (with illustrative examples).
UNIT VIII: Redox Reactions
- Concept of oxidation and oxidation and reduction, redox reactions oxidation number, balancing redox reactions in terms of loss and gain of electron and change in oxidation
UNIT IX: Hydrogen
- Occurrence, isotopes, preparation, properties and uses of hydrogen; hydridesionic, covalent and interstitial; physical and chemical properties of water, heavy water; hydrogen peroxide- preparation, reactions, uses and structure;
UNIT X: s-Block Elements (Alkali and Alkaline earth metals)
- Group I and group 2 elements:
- General introduction, electronic configuration, occurrence, anomalous properties of the first element of each group, diagonal relationship, trends in the variation of properties (such as ionization enthalpy, atomic and ionic radii), trends in chemical reactivity with oxygen, water, hydrogen and halogens;
- Preparation and Properties of Some important Compounds:
- Sodium carbonate, sodium chloride, sodium hydroxide and sodium hydrogencarbonate, biological importance of sodium and
- Industrial use of lime and limestone, biological importance of Mg and
UNIT XI: Some p-Block Elements
- General Introduction to p-Block
- Group 13 elements: General introduction, electronic configuration, occurrence, variation of properties, oxidation states, trends in chemical reactivity, anomalous properties of first element of the group; Boron, some important compounds: borax, boric acids, boron hydrides. Aluminium: uses, reactions with acids and
- General 14 elements: General introduction, electronic configuration, occurrence, variation of properties, oxidation states, trends in chemical reactivity, anomalous behaviour of first element. Carbon, allotropic forms, physical and chemical properties: uses of some important compounds:
- Important compounds of silicon and a few uses: silicon tetrachloride, silicones, silicates and zeolites, their
UNIT XII: Organic Chemistry- Some Basic Principles and Techniques
- General introduction, methods of purification qualitative and quantitative analysis, classification and IUPAC nomenclature of organic compounds.
- Electronic displacements in a covalent bond: inductive effect, electromeric effect, resonance and hyper
- Homolytic and heterolytic fission of a covalent bond: free radials, carbocations, carbanions; electrophiles and nucleophiles, types of organic
UNIT XIII: Hydrocarbons
- Alkanes- Nomenclature, isomerism, conformations (ethane only), physical properties, chemical reactions including free radical mechanism of halogenation, combustion and
- Alkanes-Nomenclature, structure of double bond (ethene), geometrical isomerism, physical properties, methods of preparation: chemical reactions: addition of hydrogen, halogen, water, hydrogen halides (Markovnikov’s addition and peroxide effect), ozonolysis, oxidation, mechanism of electrophilic addition.
- Alkynes-Nomenclature, structure of triple bond (ethyne), physical properties, methods of preparation, chemical reactions: acidic character of alkynes, addition reaction of- hydrogen, halogens, hydrogen halides and
- Aromatic hydrocarbons- Introduction, IUPAC nomenclature; Benzene; resonance, aromaticity; chemical properties: mechanism of electrophilic substitution-Nitration sulphonation, halogenation, Friedel Craft’s alkylation and acylation; directive influence of functional group in mono-substituted benzene; carcinogenicity and
UNIT XIV: Environmental Chemistry
- Environmental pollution: Air, water and soil pollution, chemical reactions in atmosphere, smogs, major atmospheric pollutants; acid rain ozone and its reactions, effects of depletion of ozone layer, greenhouse effect and global warming-pollution due to industrial wastes; green chemistry as an alternative tool for reducing pollution, strategy for control of environmental
CHEMISTRY: CONTENTS OF CLASS XII SYLLABUS
UNIT I: Solid State
- Classification of solids based on different binding forces; molecular, ionic covalent and metallic solids, amorphous and crystalline solids (elementary idea), unit cell in two dimensional and three dimensional lattices, calculation of density of unit cell, packing in solids, packing efficiency, voids, number of atoms per unit cell in a cubic unit cell, point defects, electrical and magnetic properties, Band theory of metals, conductors, semiconductors and
UNIT II: Solutions
- Types of solutions, expression of concentration of solutions of solids in liquids, solubility of gases in liquids, solid solutions, colligative properties- relative lowering of vapour pressure, Raoult’s law, elevation of boiling point, depression of freezing point, osmotic pressure, determination of molecular masses using colligative properties abnormal molecular Van Hoff factor.
UNIT III: Electrochemistry
- Redox reactions, conductance in electrolytic solutions, specific and molar conductivity variation of conductivity with concentration, kohlrausch’s Law, electrolysis and Laws of electrolysis (elementary idea), dry cell- electrolytic cells and Galvanic cells; lead accumulator, EMF of a cell, standard electrode potential, Relation between Gibbs energy change and EMF of a cell, fuel cells;
UNIT IV: Chemical Kinetics
- Rate of a reaction (average and instantaneous), factors affecting rates of reaction; concentration, temperature, catalyst; order and molecularity of a reaction; rate law and specific rate constant, integrated rate equations and half life (only for zero and first order reactions); concept of collision theory ( elementary idea, no mathematical treatment). Activation energy, Arrhenious
UNIT V: Surface Chemistry
- Adsorption-physisorption and chemisorption; factors affecting adsorption of gases on solids, catalysis homogeneous and heterogeneous, activity and selectivity: enzyme catalysis; colloidal state: distinction between true solutions, colloids and suspensions; lyophillic, lyophobic multimolecular and macromolecular colloids; properties of colloids; Tyndall effect, Brownian movement, electrophoresis, coagulation; emulsions- types of
UNIT VI: General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements
- Principles and methods of extraction- concentration, oxidation, reduction electrolytic method and refining; occurrence and principles of extraction of aluminium, copper, zinc and
UNIT VII: p- Block Elements
- Group 15 elements: General introduction, electronic configuration, occurrence, oxidation states, trends in physical and chemical properties; preparation and properties of ammonia and nitric acid, oxides of nitrogen (structure only); Phosphorous- allotropic forms; compounds of phosphorous: preparation and properties of phosphine, halides (PCI3, PCI5) and oxoacids (elementary idea only).
- Group 16 elements: General introduction, electronic configuration, oxidation states, occurrence, trends in physical and chemical properties; dioxygen: preparation, properties and uses;
classification of oxides; ozone. Sulphur – allotropic forms; compounds of sulphur: preparation, preparation, properties and uses of sulphur dioxide; sulphuric acid: industrial process of manufacture, properties and uses, oxoacids of sulphur (structures only).
- Group 17 elements: General introduction, electronic configuration, oxidation states, occurrence, trends in physical and chemical properties; compounds of halogens: preparation, properties and uses of chlorine and hydrochloric acid, interhalogen compounds oxoacids of halogens (structures only).
- Group 18 elements: General introduction, electronic configuration, occurrence, trends in physical and chemical properties,
UNIT VIII: d and f Block Elements
- General introduction, electronic configuration, characteristics of transition metals, general trends in properties of the first row transition metals- metallic character, ionization enthalpy, oxidation states, ionic radii, colour, catalytic property, magnetic properties, interstitial compounds, alloy Preparation and properties of K2Cr2O7 and KMnO4.
- Lanthanoids- electronic configuration, oxidation states, chemical reactivity, and lanthanoid contraction and its consequences.
- Actinoids: Electronic configuration, oxidation states and comparison with
UNIT IX: Coordination Compounds
- Coordination compounds: Introduction, ligands, coordination number, colour, magnetic properties and shapes, IUPAC nomenclature of mononuclear coordination compounds, isomerism (structural and stereo) bonding, Werner’s theory VBT,CFT; importance of coordination compounds (in qualitative analysis, biological systems).
UNIT X: Haloalkanes and Haloarenes
- Haloalkanes: Nomenclature, nature of C –X bond, physical and chemical properties, mechanism of substitution Optical rotation.
- Haloarenes: Nature of C-X bond, substitution reactions (directive influence of halogen for monosubstituted compounds only).
- Uses and environment effects of – dichloromethane, trichloromethane, tetrachloromethane, iodoform, freons,
UNIT XI: Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers
- Alcohols: Nomenclature, methods of preparation, physical and chemical properties (of primary alcohols only); identification of primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols; mechanism of dehydration, uses with special reference to methanol and
- Phenols: Nomenclature, methods of preparation, physical and chemical properties, acidic nature of phenol, electrophillic substitution reactions, uses of
- Ethers: Nomenclature, methods of preparation, physical and chemical properties
UNIT XII: Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids
- Aldehydes and Ketones: Nomenclature, nature of carbonyl group, methods of preparation, physical and chemical properties; and mechanism of nucleophilic addition, reactivity of alpha hydrogen in aldehydes;
- Carboxylic Acids: Nomenclature, acidic nature, methods of preparation, physical and chemical properties;
UNIT XIII: Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen
- Amines: Nomenclature, classification, structure, methods of preparation, physical and chemical properties, uses, identification of primary secondary and tertiary amines.
- Cyanides and Isocyanides- will be mentioned at relevant
- Diazonium salts: Preparation, chemical reactions and importance in synthetic organic
UNIT XIV: Biomolecules
- Carbohydrates- Classification (aldoses and ketoses), monosaccharide (glucose and fructose), L. configuration, oligosaccharides (sucrose, lactose, maltose), polysaccharides (starch, cellulose, glycogen): importance.
- Proteins- Elementary idea of – amino acids, peptide bond, polypeptides, proteins, primary structure, secondary structure, tertiary structure and quaternary structure (qualitative idea only), denaturation of proteins;
- Hormones- Elementary idea (excluding structure).
- Vitamins- Classification and
- Nucleic Acids: DNA and RNA
UNIT XV: Polymers
- Classification- Natural and synthetic, methods of polymerization (addition and condensation), Some important polymers: natural and synthetic like polyesters, bakelite; rubber, Biodegradable and non-biodegradable polymers.
UNIT XVI: Chemistry in Everyday Life
- Chemicals in medicines- analgesics, tranquilizers, antiseptics, disinfectants, antimicrobials, antifertility drugs, antibiotics, antacids,
- Chemicals in food- preservatives, artificial sweetening agents, elementary idea of
- Cleansing agents- soaps and detergents, cleansing action. BIOLOGY: CONTENTS OF CLASS XI SYLLABUS UNIT I: Diversity in Living World
- What is living? ; Biodiversity; Need for classification; Three domains of life; Taxonomy & Systematics; Concept of species and taxonomical hierarchy; Binomial nomenclature; Tools for study of Taxonomy – Museums, Zoos, Herbaria, Botanical
- Five kingdom classification; salient features and classification of Monera; Protista and Fungi into major groups; Lichens; Viruses and
- Salient features and classification of plants into major groups-Algae, Bryophytes, Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms and Angiosperms (three to five salient and distinguishing features and at least two examples of each category); Angiosperms classification up to class, characteristic features and examples).
- Salient features and classification of animals-nonchordate up to phyla level and chordate up to classes level (three to five salient features and at least two examples).
UNIT II: Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants
- Morphology and modifications; Tissues; Anatomy and functions of different parts of flowering plants: Root, stem, leaf, inflorescence- cymose and recemose, flower, fruit and seed (To be dealt along with the relevant practical of the Practical Syllabus).
- Animal tissues; Morphology, anatomy and functions of different systems (digestive, circulatory, respiratory, nervous and reproductive) of an insect (cockroach). (Brief account only)
UNIT III: Cell Structure and Function
- Cell theory and cell as the basic unit of life; Structure of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell; Plant cell and animal cell; Cell envelope, cell membrane, cell wall; Cell organelles-structure and function; Endomembrane system-endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi bodies, lysosomes, vacuoles; mitochondria,
ribosomes, plastids, micro bodies; Cytoskeleton, cilia, flagella, centrioles (ultra structure and function); Nucleus-nuclear membrane, chromatin, nucleolus.
- Chemical constituents of living cells: Biomolecules-structure and function of proteins, carbodydrates, lipids, nucleic acids; Enzymes-types, properties, enzyme
- B Cell division: Cell cycle, mitosis, meiosis and their
UNIT IV: Plant Physiology
- Transport in plants: Movement of water, gases and nutrients; Cell to cell transport-Diffusion, facilitated diffusion, active transport; Plant – water relations – Imbibition, water potential, osmosis, plasmolysis; Long distance transport of water – Absorption, apoplast, symplast, transpiration pull, root pressure and guttation; Transpiration-Opening and closing of stomata; Uptake and translocation of mineral nutrients-Transport of food, phloem transport, Mass flow hypothesis; Diffusion of gases (brief mention).
- Mineral nutrition: Essential minerals, macro and micronutrients and their role; Deficiency symptoms; Mineral toxicity; Elementary idea of Hydroponics as a method to study mineral nutrition; Nitrogen metabolism-Nitrogen cycle, biological nitrogen fixation.
- Photosynthesis: Photosynthesis as a means of Autotrophic nutrition; Site of photosynthesis take place; pigments involved in Photosynthesis (Elementary idea); Photochemical and biosynthetic phases of photosynthesis; Cyclic and non cyclic and photophosphorylation; Chemiosmotic hypothesis; Photorespiration C3 and C4 pathways; Factors affecting
- Respiration: Exchange gases; Cellular respiration-glycolysis, fermentation (anaerobic), TCA cycle and electron transport system (aerobic); Energy relations- Number of ATP molecules generated; Amphibolic pathways; Respiratory
- Plant growth and development: Seed germination; Phases of Plant growth and plant growth rate; Conditions of growth; Differentiation, dedifferentiation and redifferentiation; Sequence of developmental process in a plant cell; Growth regulators-auxin, gibberellin, cytokinin, ethylene, ABA; Seed dormancy; Vernalisation;
UNIT V: Human Physiology
- Digestion and absorption; Alimentary canal and digestive glands; Role of digestive enzymes and gastrointestinal hormones; Peristalsis, digestion, absorption and assimilation of proteins, carbohydrates and fats; Caloric value of proteins, carbohydrates and fats; Egestion; Nutritional and digestive disorders – PEM, indigestion, constipation, vomiting, jaundice,
- Breathing and Respiration: Respiratory organs in animals (recall only); Respiratory system in humans; Mechanism of breathing and its regulation in humans-Exchange of gases, transport of gases and regulation of respiration Respiratory volumes; Disorders related to respiration-Asthma, Emphysema, Occupational respiratory
- Body fluids and circulation: Composition of blood, blood groups, coagulation of blood; Composition of lymph and its function; Human circulatory system-Structure of human heart and blood vessels; Cardiac cycle, cardiac output, ECG, Double circulation; Regulation of cardiac activity; Disorders of circulatory system-Hypertension, Coronary artery disease, Angina pectoris, Heart
- Excretory products and their elimination: Modes of excretion- Ammonotelism, ureotelism, uricotelism; Human excretory system-structure and fuction; Urine formation, Osmoregulation; Regulation of kidney function-Renin-angiotensin, Atrial Natriuretic Factor, ADH and Diabetes insipidus; Role of other organs in excretion; Disorders; Uraemia, Renal failure, Renal calculi, Nephritis; Dialysis and artificial
- Locomotion and Movement: Types of movement- ciliary, fiagellar, muscular; Skeletal muscle- contractile proteins and muscle contraction; Skeletal system and its functions (To be dealt with the relevant practical of Practical syllabus); Joints; Disorders of muscular and skeletal system- Myasthenia gravis, Tetany, Muscular dystrophy, Arthritis, Osteoporosis,
- Neural control and coordination: Neuron and nerves; Nervous system in humanscentral nervous system, peripheral nervous system and visceral nervous system; Generation and conduction of nerve impulse; Reflex action; Sense organs; Elementary structure and function of eye and
- Chemical coordination and regulation: Endocrine glands and hormones; Human endocrine system- Hypothalamus, Pituitary, Pineal, Thyroid, Parathyroid, Adrenal, Pancreas, Gonads; Mechanism of hormone action (Elementary Idea); Role of hormones as messengers and regulators, Hypo-and hyperactivity and related disorders (Common disorders e.g. Dwarfism, Acromegaly, Cretinism, goiter, exopthalmic goiter, diabetes, Addison’s disease).
(Imp: Diseases and disorders mentioned above to be dealt in brief.)
BIOLOGY: CONTENTS OF CLASS XII SYLLABUS
UNIT I: Reproduction
- Reproduction in organisms: Reproduction, a characteristic feature of all organisms for continuation of species; Modes of reproduction – Asexual and sexual; Asexual reproduction; Modes-Binary fission, sporulation, budding, gemmule, fragmentation; vegetative propagation in
- Sexual reproduction in flowering plants: Flower structure; Development of male and female gametophytes; Pollination-types, agencies and examples; Outbreeding devices; Pollen-Pistil interaction; Double fertilization; Post fertilization events- Development of endosperm and embryo, Development of seed and formation of fruit; Special modes-apomixis, parthenocarpy, polyembryony; Significance of seed and fruit
- Human Reproduction: Male and female reproductive systems; Microscopic anatomy of testis and ovary; Gametogenesis-spermatogenesis & oogenesis; Menstrual cycle; Fertilisation, embryo development upto blastocyst formation, implantation; Pregnancy and placenta formation (Elementary idea); Parturition (Elementary idea); Lactation (Elementary idea).
- Reproductive health: Need for reproductive health and prevention of sexually transmitted diseases (STD); Birth control-Need and Methods, Contraception and Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP); Amniocentesis; Infertility and assisted reproductive technologies – IVF, ZIFT, GIFT (Elementary idea for general awareness).
UNIT II: Genetics and Evolution
- Heredity and variation: Mendelian Inheritance; Deviations from Mendelism- Incomplete dominance, Co-dominance, Multiple alleles and Inheritance of blood groups, Pleiotropy; Elementary idea of polygenic inheritance; Chromosome theory of inheritance; Chromosomes and genes; Sex determination-In humans, birds, honey bee; Linkage and crossing over; Sex linked inheritance-Haemophilia, Colour blindness; Mendelian disorders in humans-Thalassemia; Chromosomal disorders in humans; Down’s syndrome, Turner’s and Klinefelter’s
- Molecular basis of Inheritance: Search for genetic material and DNA as genetic material; Structure of DNA and RNA; DNA packaging; DNA replication; Central dogma; Transcription, genetic code, translation; Gene expression and regulation- Lac Operon; Genome and human genome project; DNA finger
- Evolution: Origin of life; Biological evolution and evidences for biological evolution from Paleontology, comparative anatomy, embryology and molecular evidence); Darwin’s contribution, Modern Synthetic theory of Evolution; Mechanism of evolution-Variation (Mutation and Recombination) and Natural Selection with examples, types of natural selection; Gene flow and genetic drift; Hardy-Weinberg’s principle; Adaptive Radiation; Human evolution.
UNIT III: Biology and Human Welfare
- Health and Disease; Pathogens; parasites causing human diseases (Malaria, Filariasis, Ascariasis. Typhoid, Pneumonia, common cold, amoebiasis, ring worm); Basic concepts of immunology- vaccines; Cancer, HIV and AIDS; Adolescence, drug and alcohol
- Improvement in food production; Plant breeding, tissue culture, single cell protein, Biofortification; Apiculture and Animal
- Microbes in human welfare: In household food processing, industrial production, sewage treatment, energy generation and as biocontrol agents and
UNIT IV: Biotechnology and Its Applications
- Principles and process of Biotechnology: Genetic engineering (Recombinant DNA technology).
- Application of Biotechnology in health and agriculture: Human insulin and vaccine production, gene therapy; Genetically modified organisms-Bt crops; Transgenic Animals; Biosafety issues- Biopiracy and
UNIT V: Ecology and Environment
- Organisms and environment: Habitat and niche; Population and ecological adaptations; Population interactions-mutualism, competition, predation, parasitism; Population attributes-growth, birth rate and death rate, age
- Ecosystem: Patterns, components; productivity and decomposition; Energy flow; Pyramids of number, biomass, energy; Nutrient cycling (carbon and phosphorous); Ecological succession; Ecological Services-Carbon fixation, pollination, oxygen
- Biodiversity and its conservation: Concept of Biodiversity; Patterns of Biodiversity; Importance of Biodiversity; Loss of Biodiversity; Biodiversity conservation; Hotspots, endangered organisms, extinction, Red Data Book, biosphere reserves, National parks and
- Environmental issues: Air pollution and its control; Water pollution and its control; Agrochemicals and their effects; Solid waste management; Radioactive waste management; Greenhouse effect and global warning; Ozone depletion; Deforestation; Any three case studies as success stories addressing environmental
Appendix-VI
State/Union Territory Wise List of Examination Cities for National Eligibility Cum Entrance Test (UG) – 2022 |
||||||
S.
No. |
City Code | State | District | City | ||
1 |
1101 |
Andaman & Nicobar Islands (UT) |
South Andaman |
Port Blair |
||
2 | 1211 | Andhra Pradesh | Guntur | Amaravathi | ||
3 | 1212 | Andhra Pradesh | Anantapur | Anantapur | ||
4 | 1213 | Andhra Pradesh | West Godavari | Bhimavaram | ||
5 | 1214 | Andhra Pradesh | Prakasam | Chirala | ||
6 | 1215 | Andhra Pradesh | Chittoor | Chittoor | ||
7 | 1216 | Andhra Pradesh | West Godavari | Eluru | ||
8 | 1217 | Andhra Pradesh | Anantapur | Gooty | ||
9 | 1218 | Andhra Pradesh | Nellore | Gudur | ||
10 | 1219 | Andhra Pradesh | YSR Kadapa | Kadapa | ||
11 | 1220 | Andhra Pradesh | East Godavari | Kakinada | ||
12 | 1221 | Andhra Pradesh | Kurnool | Nandyal | ||
13 | 1222 | Andhra Pradesh | Prakasam | Ongole | ||
14 | 1223 | Andhra Pradesh | Ysr Kadapa | Proddatur | ||
15 | 1224 | Andhra Pradesh | East Godavari | Rajahmundry | ||
16 | 1225 | Andhra Pradesh | Srikakulam | Srikakulam | ||
17 | 1226 | Andhra Pradesh | East Godavari | Surampalem | ||
18 | 1227 | Andhra Pradesh | West Godavari | Tadepalligudem | ||
19 | 1228 | Andhra Pradesh | West Godavari | Tanuku | ||
20 | 1229 | Andhra Pradesh | Vizianagaram | Vizianagaram | ||
21 | 1201 | Andhra Pradesh | Guntur | Guntur | ||
22 | 1202 | Andhra Pradesh | Kurnool | Kurnool | ||
23 | 1203 | Andhra Pradesh | Nellore | Nellore | ||
24 | 1204 | Andhra Pradesh | Chittoor | Tirupathi | ||
25 | 1205 | Andhra Pradesh | Krishna | Vijayawada | ||
26 | 1206 | Andhra Pradesh | Vishakapatnam | Visakhapatnam | ||
27 | 1207 | Andhra Pradesh | Tenali | Tenali | ||
28 | 1208 | Andhra Pradesh | Guntur | Narasaraopet | ||
29 | 1209 | Andhra Pradesh | Machilipatnam | Machilipatnam | ||
30 | 1210 | Andhra Pradesh | Mangalagiri | Mangalagiri | ||
31 | 1302 | Arunachal Pradesh | West Siang | Basar | ||
32 | 1303 | Arunachal Pradesh | Namsai | Namsai | ||
33 | 1301 | Arunachal Pradesh | Papum Pare | Itanagar/Naharlagun | ||
34 | 1405 | Assam | Baksa | Baksa | ||
35 | 1406 | Assam | Barpeta | Barpeta | ||
36 | 1407 | Assam | Darrang (Mangaldoi) | Darrang (Mangaldoi) | ||
37 | 1408 | Assam | Dhubri | Dhubri | ||
38 | 1409 | Assam | Goalpara | Goalpara | ||
39 | 1410 | Assam | Golaghat | Golaghat |
40 | 1411 | Assam | Hailakandi | Hailakandi | ||
41 | 1412 | Assam | Jorhat | Jorhat | ||
42 | 1413 | Assam | Lakhimpur | Lakhimpur | ||
43 | 1414 | Assam | Nagaon | Nagaon | ||
44 | 1415 | Assam | Nalbari | Nalbari | ||
45 | 1416 | Assam | Sivasagar | Sivasagar | ||
46 | 1417 | Assam | Udalguri | Udalguri | ||
47 | 1401 | Assam | Dibrugarh | Dibrugarh | ||
48 | 1402 | Assam | Kamrup Metropolitan | Guwahati | ||
49 | 1403 | Assam | Cachar | Silchar | ||
50 | 1404 | Assam | Sonitpur | Tezpur | ||
51 | 1508 | Bihar | Araria | Araria | ||
52 | 1509 | Bihar | Bhojpur | Arrah | ||
53 | 1510 | Bihar | Arwal | Arwal | ||
54 | 1511 | Bihar | Aurangabad | Aurangabad (BR) | ||
55 | 1512 | Bihar | Banka | Banka | ||
56 | 1513 | Bihar | Begusarai | Begusarai | ||
57 | 1514 | Bihar | West Champaran | Bettiah | ||
58 | 1515 | Bihar | Kaimur | Bhabua | ||
59 | 1516 | Bihar | Bhagalpur | Bhagalpur | ||
60 | 1517 | Bihar | Buxar | Buxar | ||
61 | 1518 | Bihar | Darbhanga | Darbhanga | ||
62 | 1519 | Bihar | Gopalganj | Gopalganj | ||
63 | 1520 | Bihar | Jamui | Jamui | ||
64 | 1521 | Bihar | Jehanabad | Jehanabad | ||
65 | 1522 | Bihar | Katihar | Katihar | ||
66 | 1523 | Bihar | Khagaria | Khagaria | ||
67 | 1524 | Bihar | Lakhisarai | Lakhisarai | ||
68 | 1525 | Bihar | Madhepura | Madhepura | ||
69 | 1526 | Bihar | East Champaran | Motihari | ||
70 | 1527 | Bihar | Munger | Munger | ||
71 | 1528 | Bihar | Muzaffarpur | Muzaffarpur | ||
72 | 1529 | Bihar | Nawada | Nawada | ||
73 | 1530 | Bihar | Purnea | Purnea | ||
74 | 1531 | Bihar | Samastipur | Samastipur | ||
75 | 1532 | Bihar | Rohtas | Sasaram | ||
76 | 1533 | Bihar | Sheikhpura | Sheikhpura | ||
77 | 1534 | Bihar | Siwan | Siwan | ||
78 | 1535 | Bihar | Supaul | Supaul | ||
79 | 1501 | Bihar | Gaya | Gaya | ||
80 | 1502 | Bihar | Patna | Patna | ||
81 | 1503 | Bihar | Vaishali | Hajipur | ||
82 | 1504 | Bihar | Madhubani | Madhubani | ||
83 | 1505 | Bihar | Nalanda | Nalanda | ||
84 | 1506 | Bihar | Sitamarhi | Sitamarhi |
85 | 1507 | Bihar | Vaishali | Vaishali | ||
86 | 1601 | Chandigarh(Ut) | Chandigarh | Chandigarh/Mohali/Panchkula | ||
87 | 1705 | Chhattisgarh | Balod | Balod | ||
88 | 1706 | Chhattisgarh | Bijapur | Bijapur | ||
89 | 1707 | Chhattisgarh | Dantewada | Dantewada | ||
90 | 1708 | Chhattisgarh | Dhamtari | Dhamtari | ||
91 | 1709 | Chhattisgarh | Bastar | Jagdalpur | ||
92 | 1710 | Chhattisgarh | Janjgir-Champa | Janjgir | ||
93 | 1711 | Chhattisgarh | Kanker | Kanker | ||
94 | 1712 | Chhattisgarh | Kondagaon | Kondagaon | ||
95 | 1713 | Chhattisgarh | Korba | Korba | ||
96 | 1714 | Chhattisgarh | Mahasamund | Mahasamund | ||
97 | 1715 | Chhattisgarh | Narayanpur | Narayanpur | ||
98 | 1716 | Chhattisgarh | Raigarh | Raigarh | ||
99 | 1717 | Chhattisgarh | Rajnandgaon | Rajnandgaon | ||
100 | 1718 | Chhattisgarh | Sukma | Sukma | ||
101 | 1701 | Chhattisgarh | Durg | Bhilai Nagar/Durg | ||
102 | 1702 | Chhattisgarh | Bilaspur (CG) | Bilaspur (CG) | ||
103 | 1703 | Chhattisgarh | Raipur | Raipur | ||
104 | 1704 | Chhattisgarh | Sarguja | Ambikapur | ||
105 | 1801 | Dadra & Nagar Haveli (UT) | Dadra & Nagar Haveli | Silvassa | ||
106 | 1902 | Daman & Diu (UT) | Diu | Diu | ||
107 | 1901 | Daman & Diu (UT) | Daman | Daman | ||
108 | 2001 | Delhi | Delhi | Delhi/New Delhi | ||
109 | 2102 | Goa | North Goa | Ponda | ||
110 | 2101 | Goa | South Goa | Panaji/Madgaon/Margao | ||
111 | 2213 | Gujarat | Amreli | Amreli | ||
112 | 2214 | Gujarat | Banaskantha | Banaskantha | ||
113 | 2215 | Gujarat | Bharuch | Bharuch | ||
114 | 2216 | Gujarat | Botad | Botad | ||
115 | 2217 | Gujarat | Dahod | Dahod | ||
116 | 2218 | Gujarat | Sabarkantha | Himatnagar | ||
117 | 2219 | Gujarat | Jamnagar | Jamnagar | ||
118 | 2220 | Gujarat | Junagadh | Junagadh | ||
119 | 2221 | Gujarat | Kadi | Kadi | ||
120 | 2222 | Gujarat | Kheda | Kheda | ||
121 | 2223 | Gujarat | Mehsana | Mehsana | ||
122 | 2224 | Gujarat | Aravalli | Modasa | ||
123 | 2225 | Gujarat | Narmada | Narmada | ||
124 | 2226 | Gujarat | Navsari | Navsari | ||
125 | 2227 | Gujarat | Porbandar | Porbandar | ||
126 | 2228 | Gujarat | Surendranagar | Surendranagar | ||
127 | 2229 | Gujarat | Gir Somnath | Veraval | ||
128 | 2230 | Gujarat | Tapi | Vyara | ||
129 | 2201 | Gujarat | Ahmedabad | Ahmedabad |
130 | 2202 | Gujarat | Vallabhvidyanagar | Anand | ||
131 | 2203 | Gujarat | Bhavnagar | Bhavnagar | ||
132 | 2204 | Gujarat | Gandhinagar | Gandhinagar | ||
133 | 2205 | Gujarat | Panchmahal | Godhra | ||
134 | 2206 | Gujarat | Patan | Patan | ||
135 | 2207 | Gujarat | Rajkot | Rajkot | ||
136 | 2208 | Gujarat | Surat | Surat | ||
137 | 2209 | Gujarat | Vadodara | Vadodara | ||
138 | 2210 | Gujarat | Valsad/Vapi | Valsad/Vapi | ||
139 | 2211 | Gujarat | Gandhidham | Gandhidham | ||
140 | 2212 | Gujarat | Kutch | Bhuj | ||
141 | 2305 | Haryana | Bhiwani | Bhiwani | ||
142 | 2306 | Haryana | Hissar | Hissar | ||
143 | 2307 | Haryana | Jhajjar | Jhajjar | ||
144 | 2308 | Haryana | Jind | Jind | ||
145 | 2309 | Haryana | Kaithal | Kaithal | ||
146 | 2310 | Haryana | Kurukshetra | Kurukshetra | ||
147 | 2311 | Haryana | Mahendragarh | Mahendragarh | ||
148 | 2312 | Haryana | Mewat | Mewat | ||
149 | 2313 | Haryana | Palwal | Palwal | ||
150 | 2314 | Haryana | Panipat | Panipat | ||
151 | 2315 | Haryana | Rewari | Rewari | ||
152 | 2316 | Haryana | Rohtak | Rohtak | ||
153 | 2317 | Haryana | Sirsa | Sirsa | ||
154 | 2318 | Haryana | Sonipat | Sonipat | ||
155 | 2319 | Haryana | Yamuna Nagar | Yamuna Nagar | ||
156 | 2301 | Haryana | Faridabad | Faridabad | ||
157 | 2302 | Haryana | Gurugram | Gurugram | ||
158 | 2303 | Haryana | Ambala | Ambala | ||
159 | 2304 | Haryana | Karnal | Karnal | ||
160 | 2403 | Himachal Pradesh | Bilaspur | Bilaspur (HP) | ||
161 | 2404 | Himachal Pradesh | Chamba | Chamba | ||
162 | 2405 | Himachal Pradesh | Kangra | Kangra/Palampur | ||
163 | 2406 | Himachal Pradesh | Kullu | Kullu | ||
164 | 2407 | Himachal Pradesh | Mandi | Mandi | ||
165 | 2408 | Himachal Pradesh | Sirmaur | Sirmaur | ||
166 | 2409 | Himachal Pradesh | Solan | Solan | ||
167 | 2410 | Himachal Pradesh | Una | Una | ||
168 | 2401 | Himachal Pradesh | Hamirpur | Hamirpur (HP) | ||
169 | 2402 | Himachal Pradesh | Shimla | Shimla | ||
170 | 2505 | Jammu & Kashmir | Badgam | Badgam | ||
171 | 2506 | Jammu & Kashmir | Kathua | Kathua | ||
172 | 2507 | Jammu & Kashmir | Kupwara | Kupwara | ||
173 | 2508 | Jammu & Kashmir | Pulwama | Pulwama | ||
174 | 2509 | Jammu & Kashmir | Samba | Samba |
175 | 2510 | Jammu & Kashmir | Udhampur | Udhampur | ||
176 | 2501 | Jammu & Kashmir | Jammu | Jammu | ||
177 | 2502 | Jammu & Kashmir | Srinagar | Srinagar (J & K) | ||
178 | 2503 | Jammu & Kashmir | Anantnag | Anantnag | ||
179 | 2504 | Jammu & Kashmir | Baramulla | Baramulla | ||
180 | 2605 | Jharkhand | West Singhbhum | Chaibasa | ||
181 | 2606 | Jharkhand | Chatra | Chatra | ||
182 | 2607 | Jharkhand | Deoghar | Deoghar (JH) | ||
183 | 2608 | Jharkhand | Dhanbad | Dhanbad | ||
184 | 2609 | Jharkhand | Dumka | Dumka | ||
185 | 2610 | Jharkhand | Garhwa | Garhwa | ||
186 | 2611 | Jharkhand | Giridih | Giridih | ||
187 | 2612 | Jharkhand | Godda | Godda | ||
188 | 2613 | Jharkhand | Gumla | Gumla | ||
189 | 2614 | Jharkhand | Khunti | Khunti | ||
190 | 2615 | Jharkhand | Koderma | Koderma | ||
191 | 2616 | Jharkhand | Latehar | Latehar | ||
192 | 2617 | Jharkhand | Lohardaga | Lohardaga | ||
193 | 2618 | Jharkhand | Pakur | Pakur | ||
194 | 2619 | Jharkhand | Palamu | Palamu | ||
195 | 2620 | Jharkhand | Ramgarh | Ramgarh | ||
196 | 2621 | Jharkhand | Sahibganj | Sahibganj | ||
197 | 2622 | Jharkhand | Simdega | Simdega | ||
198 | 2601 | Jharkhand | Bokaro Steel City | Bokaro | ||
199 | 2602 | Jharkhand | East Singhbhum | Jamshedpur | ||
200 | 2603 | Jharkhand | Ranchi | Ranchi | ||
201 | 2604 | Jharkhand | Hazaribagh | Hazaribagh | ||
202 | 2710 | Karnataka | Bagalkot | Bagalkot | ||
203 | 2711 | Karnataka | Ballari | Ballari | ||
204 | 2712 | Karnataka | Bengaluru- Urban | Bengaluru- Urban | ||
205 | 2713 | Karnataka | Bidar | Bidar | ||
206 | 2714 | Karnataka | Chamarajnagar | Chamarajnagar | ||
207 | 2715 | Karnataka | Chikaballapur | Chikaballapur | ||
208 | 2716 | Karnataka | Chikmagalur | Chikmagalur | ||
209 | 2717 | Karnataka | Chitradurga | Chitradurga | ||
210 | 2718 | Karnataka | Gadag | Gadag | ||
211 | 2719 | Karnataka | Hassan | Hassan | ||
212 | 2720 | Karnataka | Haveri District | Haveri | ||
213 | 2721 | Karnataka | Uttara Kannada | Karwar | ||
214 | 2722 | Karnataka | Kodagu | Kodagu | ||
215 | 2723 | Karnataka | Kolar | Kolar | ||
216 | 2724 | Karnataka | Koppal | Koppal | ||
217 | 2725 | Karnataka | Mandya | Mandya | ||
218 | 2726 | Karnataka | Raichur | Raichur | ||
219 | 2727 | Karnataka | Ramanagara | Ramanagara |
220 | 2728 | Karnataka | Shimoga | Shivamoga (Shimoga) | ||
221 | 2729 | Karnataka | Tumkur | Tumakuru | ||
222 | 2730 | Karnataka | Vijayapura | Vijayapura | ||
223 | 2731 | Karnataka | Yadgir | Yadgir | ||
224 | 2701 | Karnataka | Belagavi | Belagavi (Belgaum) | ||
225 | 2702 | Karnataka | Bengaluru- Rural | Bengaluru- Rural | ||
226 | 2703 | Karnataka | Davangere | Davangere | ||
227 | 2704 | Karnataka | Dharwad/Hubli | Dharwad | ||
228 | 2705 | Karnataka | Kalaburagi | Gulbarga/Kalaburgi | ||
229 | 2706 | Karnataka | Hubli | Hubli | ||
230 | 2707 | Karnataka | Dakshina Kannada | Mangaluru (Mangalore) | ||
231 | 2708 | Karnataka | Mysore | Mysuru (Mysore) | ||
232 | 2709 | Karnataka | Udupi | Udupi/Manipal | ||
233 | 2814 | Kerala | Pathanamthitta | Pathanamthitta | ||
234 | 2815 | Kerala | Kannur | Piyyannur | ||
235 | 2816 | Kerala | Wayanad | Wayanad | ||
236 | 2801 | Kerala | Alappuzha | Alappuzha/Chengannur | ||
237 | 2802 | Kerala | Angamaly | Angamaly | ||
238 | 2803 | Kerala | Ernakulam | Ernakulam/Moovattupuzha | ||
239 | 2804 | Kerala | Kannur | Kannur | ||
240 | 2805 | Kerala | Kasaragod | Kasaragod | ||
241 | 2806 | Kerala | Kollam | Kollam | ||
242 | 2807 | Kerala | Kottayam | Kottayam | ||
243 | 2808 | Kerala | Kozhikode | Kozhikode/Calicut | ||
244 | 2809 | Kerala | Malappuram | Malappuram | ||
245 | 2810 | Kerala | Palakkad | Palakkad | ||
246 | 2811 | Kerala | Thiruvananthapuram | Thiruvananthapuram | ||
247 | 2812 | Kerala | Thrissur | Thrissur | ||
248 | 2813 | Kerala | Idukki | Idukki | ||
249 | 2901 | Lakshadweep (UT) | Kavaratti | Kavaratti | ||
250 | 4701 | Ladakh(UT) | Leh | Leh | ||
251 | 4702 | Ladakh(UT) | Kargil | Kargil | ||
252 | 3007 | Madhya Pradesh | Ashok Nagar | Ashok Nagar | ||
253 | 3008 | Madhya Pradesh | Balaghat | Balaghat | ||
254 | 3009 | Madhya Pradesh | Barwani | Barwani | ||
255 | 3010 | Madhya Pradesh | Betul | Betul | ||
256 | 3011 | Madhya Pradesh | Bhind | Bhind | ||
257 | 3012 | Madhya Pradesh | Chhatarpur | Chhatarpur | ||
258 | 3013 | Madhya Pradesh | Chhindwara | Chhindwara | ||
259 | 3014 | Madhya Pradesh | Damoh | Damoh | ||
260 | 3015 | Madhya Pradesh | Datia | Datia | ||
261 | 3016 | Madhya Pradesh | Deoghar | Deoghar (MP) | ||
262 | 3017 | Madhya Pradesh | Dewas | Dewas | ||
263 | 3018 | Madhya Pradesh | Dhar | Dhar | ||
264 | 3019 | Madhya Pradesh | Guna | Guna |
265 | 3020 | Madhya Pradesh | Hoshangabad | Hoshangabad | ||
266 | 3021 | Madhya Pradesh | Khandwa | Khandwa | ||
267 | 3022 | Madhya Pradesh | Khargone (West Nimar) | Khargone (West Nimar) | ||
268 | 3023 | Madhya Pradesh | Mandsaur | Mandsaur | ||
269 | 3024 | Madhya Pradesh | Morena | Morena | ||
270 | 3025 | Madhya Pradesh | Neemuch | Neemuch | ||
271 | 3026 | Madhya Pradesh | Rajgarh | Rajgarh | ||
272 | 3027 | Madhya Pradesh | Ratlam | Ratlam | ||
273 | 3028 | Madhya Pradesh | Sagar | Sagar | ||
274 | 3029 | Madhya Pradesh | Satna | Satna | ||
275 | 3030 | Madhya Pradesh | Singrauli | Singrauli | ||
276 | 3031 | Madhya Pradesh | Vidisha | Vidisha | ||
277 | 3001 | Madhya Pradesh | Bhopal | Bhopal | ||
278 | 3002 | Madhya Pradesh | Gwalior | Gwalior | ||
279 | 3003 | Madhya Pradesh | Indore | Indore | ||
280 | 3004 | Madhya Pradesh | Jabalpur | Jabalpur | ||
281 | 3005 | Madhya Pradesh | Ujjain | Ujjain | ||
282 | 3006 | Madhya Pradesh | Rewa | Rewa | ||
283 | 3123 | Maharashtra | Bhandara | Bhandara | ||
284 | 3124 | Maharashtra | Chandrapur | Chandrapur | ||
285 | 3125 | Maharashtra | Gadchiroli | Gadchiroli | ||
286 | 3126 | Maharashtra | Gondia | Gondia | ||
287 | 3127 | Maharashtra | Nandurbar | Nandurbar | ||
288 | 3128 | Maharashtra | Osmanabad | Osmanabad | ||
289 | 3129 | Maharashtra | Palghar | Palghar | ||
290 | 3130 | Maharashtra | Parbhani | Parbhani | ||
291 | 3131 | Maharashtra | Raigad | Raigad | ||
292 | 3132 | Maharashtra | Wardha | Wardha | ||
293 | 3133 | Maharashtra | Washim | Washim | ||
294 | 3134 | Maharashtra | Yavatmal | Yavatmal | ||
295 | 3101 | Maharashtra | Ahmednagar | Ahmednagar | ||
296 | 3102 | Maharashtra | Akola | Akola | ||
297 | 3103 | Maharashtra | Amravati | Amravati | ||
298 | 3104 | Maharashtra | Aurangabad | Aurangabad (MR) | ||
299 | 3105 | Maharashtra | Beed | Beed | ||
300 | 3106 | Maharashtra | Buldhana | Buldhana | ||
301 | 3107 | Maharashtra | Jalgaon | Jalgaon | ||
302 | 3108 | Maharashtra | Kolhapur | Kolhapur | ||
303 | 3109 | Maharashtra | Latur | Latur | ||
304 | 3110 | Maharashtra | Mumbai City | Mumbai | ||
305 | 3111 | Maharashtra | Nagpur | Nagpur | ||
306 | 3112 | Maharashtra | Nanded | Nanded | ||
307 | 3113 | Maharashtra | Nashik | Nashik | ||
308 | 3114 | Maharashtra | Mumbai City | Navi Mumbai | ||
309 | 3115 | Maharashtra | Pune | Pune |
310 | 3116 | Maharashtra | Satara | Satara | ||
311 | 3117 | Maharashtra | Solapur | Solapur | ||
312 | 3118 | Maharashtra | Thane | Thane | ||
313 | 3119 | Maharashtra | Sangli | Sangli | ||
314 | 3120 | Maharashtra | Sindhudurg | Sindhudurg | ||
315 | 3121 | Maharashtra | Ratnagiri | Ratnagiri | ||
316 | 3122 | Maharashtra | Dhule | Dhule | ||
317 | 3202 | Manipur | Chandel | Chandel | ||
318 | 3201 | Manipur | Imphal | Imphal | ||
319 | 3302 | Meghalaya | East Khasi Hills | East Khasi Hills | ||
320 | 3303 | Meghalaya | Ri Bhoi | Ri Bhoi | ||
321 | 3301 | Meghalaya | Shillong | Shillong | ||
322 | 3402 | Mizoram | Mamit | Mamit | ||
323 | 3401 | Mizoram | Aizawl | Aizawl | ||
324 | 3503 | Nagaland | Kiphrie | Kiphrie | ||
325 | 3501 | Nagaland | Dimapur | Dimapur | ||
326 | 3502 | Nagaland | Kohima | Kohima | ||
327 | 3617 | Odisha | Baragarh | Baragarh | ||
328 | 3618 | Odisha | Mayurbanj | Baripada/Mayurbanj | ||
329 | 3619 | Odisha | Bhadrak | Bhadrak | ||
330 | 3620 | Odisha | Dhenkanal | Dhenkanal | ||
331 | 3621 | Odisha | Jagatsinghpur | Jagatsinghpur | ||
332 | 3622 | Odisha | Jajpur | Jajpur | ||
333 | 3623 | Odisha | Jharsuguda | Jharsuguda | ||
334 | 3624 | Odisha | Kendrapara | Kendrapara | ||
335 | 3625 | Odisha | Nawarangpur | Nawarangpur | ||
336 | 3626 | Odisha | Nuapada | Nuapada | ||
337 | 3601 | Odisha | Angul | Angul | ||
338 | 3602 | Odisha | Balasore | Balasore (Baleswar) | ||
339 | 3603 | Odisha | Ganjam | Berhampur/Ganjam | ||
340 | 3604 | Odisha | Khordha | Bhubaneswar | ||
341 | 3605 | Odisha | Cuttack | Cuttack | ||
342 | 3606 | Odisha | Sundergarh | Rourkela | ||
343 | 3607 | Odisha | Sambalpur | Sambalpur | ||
344 | 3608 | Odisha | Balangir | Balangir | ||
345 | 3609 | Odisha | Kalahandi | Bhawanipatna / Kalahandi | ||
346 | 3610 | Odisha | Kendujhar (Keonjhar) | Kendujhar (Keonjhar) | ||
347 | 3611 | Odisha | Koraput | Jeypore (Odisha) | ||
348 | 3612 | Odisha | Malkangiri | Malkangiri | ||
349 | 3613 | Odisha | Paralakhemundi (Gajapati) | Paralakhemundi (Gajapati) | ||
350 | 3614 | Odisha | Phulbani (Kandhamal) | Phulbani (Kandhamal) | ||
351 | 3615 | Odisha | Rayagada | Rayagada | ||
352 | 3616 | Odisha | Puri | Puri | ||
353 | 37 | Puducherry (UT) | Puducherry | Karaikal | ||
354 | 3701 | Puducherry(UT) | Puducherry | Puducherry |
355 | 3806 | Punjab | Faridkot | Faridkot | ||
356 | 3807 | Punjab | Fazilka | Fazilka | ||
357 | 3808 | Punjab | Firozpur | Firozpur | ||
358 | 3809 | Punjab | Gurdaspur | Gurdaspur | ||
359 | 3810 | Punjab | Hoshiarpur | Hoshiarpur | ||
360 | 3811 | Punjab | Moga | Moga | ||
361 | 3812 | Punjab | Pathankot | Pathankot | ||
362 | 3813 | Punjab | Rupnagar | Rupnagar | ||
363 | 3814 | Punjab | Sahibzada Ajit Singh Nagar | Sahibzada Ajit Singh Nagar | ||
364 | 3815 | Punjab | Sangrur | Sangrur | ||
365 | 3816 | Punjab | Sri Muktsar Sahib | Sri Muktsar Sahib | ||
366 | 3801 | Punjab | Amritsar | Amritsar | ||
367 | 3802 | Punjab | Bhatinda | Bhatinda | ||
368 | 3803 | Punjab | Jalandhar | Jalandhar | ||
369 | 3804 | Punjab | Ludhiana | Ludhiana | ||
370 | 3805 | Punjab | Patiala | Patiala/Fatehgarh Sahib | ||
371 | 3907 | Rajasthan | Alwar | Alwar | ||
372 | 3908 | Rajasthan | Baran | Baran | ||
373 | 3909 | Rajasthan | Barmer | Barmer | ||
374 | 3910 | Rajasthan | Bharatpur | Bharatpur | ||
375 | 3911 | Rajasthan | Bhilwara | Bhilwara | ||
376 | 3912 | Rajasthan | Chittorgarh | Chittorgarh | ||
377 | 3913 | Rajasthan | Churu | Churu | ||
378 | 3914 | Rajasthan | Dausa | Dausa | ||
379 | 3915 | Rajasthan | Dholpur | Dholpur | ||
380 | 3916 | Rajasthan | Hanumangarh | Hanumangarh | ||
381 | 3917 | Rajasthan | Jaisalmer | Jaisalmer | ||
382 | 3918 | Rajasthan | Jhunjhunu | Jhunjhunu | ||
383 | 3919 | Rajasthan | Karauli | Karauli | ||
384 | 3920 | Rajasthan | Nagaur | Nagaur | ||
385 | 3921 | Rajasthan | Pali | Pali | ||
386 | 3922 | Rajasthan | Sawai Madhopur | Sawai Madhopur | ||
387 | 3923 | Rajasthan | Sikar | Sikar | ||
388 | 3924 | Rajasthan | Sirohi | Sirohi | ||
389 | 3925 | Rajasthan | Sriganganagar | Sriganganagar | ||
390 | 3901 | Rajasthan | Ajmer | Ajmer | ||
391 | 3902 | Rajasthan | Bikaner | Bikaner | ||
392 | 3903 | Rajasthan | Jaipur | Jaipur | ||
393 | 3904 | Rajasthan | Jodhpur | Jodhpur | ||
394 | 3905 | Rajasthan | Kota | Kota | ||
395 | 3906 | Rajasthan | Udaipur | Udaipur | ||
396 | 4002 | Sikkim | West Sikkim | West Sikkim | ||
397 | 4001 | Sikkim | Gangtok | Gangtok | ||
398 | 4119 | Tamil Nadu | Ariyalur | Ariyalur | ||
399 | 4120 | Tamil Nadu | Dharmapuri | Dharmapuri |
400 | 4121 | Tamil Nadu | Erode | Erode | ||
401 | 4122 | Tamil Nadu | Krishnagiri | Krishnagiri | ||
402 | 4123 | Tamil Nadu | Nagapattinam | Nagapattinam | ||
403 | 4124 | Tamil Nadu | Pudukkottai | Pudukkottai | ||
404 | 4125 | Tamil Nadu | Ramanathapuram | Ramanathapuram | ||
405 | 4126 | Tamil Nadu | Sivaganga | Sivaganga | ||
406 | 4127 | Tamil Nadu | Thoothukudi | Thoothukudi | ||
407 | 4128 | Tamil Nadu | Tiruvarur | Tiruvarur | ||
408 | 4129 | Tamil Nadu | Tiruvannamalai | Tiruvannamalai | ||
409 | 4130 | Tamil Nadu | Nilgiris | Udhagamandalam | ||
410 | 4131 | Tamil Nadu | Villupuram | Viluppuram | ||
411 | 4101 | Tamil Nadu | Chennai | Chennai | ||
412 | 4102 | Tamil Nadu | Coimbatore | Coimbatore | ||
413 | 4103 | Tamil Nadu | Cuddalore | Cuddalore | ||
414 | 4104 | Tamil Nadu | Kanchipuram | Kanchipuram | ||
415 | 4105 | Tamil Nadu | Karur | Karur | ||
416 | 4106 | Tamil Nadu | Madurai | Madurai | ||
417 | 4107 | Tamil Nadu | Kanyakumari | Kanyakumari/Nagercoil | ||
418 | 4108 | Tamil Nadu | Namakkal | Namakkal | ||
419 | 4109 | Tamil Nadu | Salem | Salem | ||
420 | 4110 | Tamil Nadu | Thanjavur | Thanjavur | ||
421 | 4111 | Tamil Nadu | Thiruvallur | Thiruvallur | ||
422 | 4112 | Tamil Nadu | Tiruchirappalli | Tiruchirappalli | ||
423 | 4113 | Tamil Nadu | Tirunelveli | Tirunelveli | ||
424 | 4114 | Tamil Nadu | Vellore | Vellore | ||
425 | 4115 | Tamil Nadu | Chengalpet | Chengalpet | ||
426 | 4116 | Tamil Nadu | Virudhanagar | Virudhunagar | ||
427 | 4117 | Tamil Nadu | Dindigul | Dindigul | ||
428 | 4118 | Tamil Nadu | Tiruppur | Tiruppur | ||
429 | 4209 | Telangana | Adilabad | Adilabad | ||
430 | 4210 | Telangana | Asifabad | Asifabad | ||
431 | 4211 | Telangana | Bhupalapally | Bhupalapally | ||
432 | 4212 | Telangana | Jogulamba Gadwal | Gadwal | ||
433 | 4213 | Telangana | Jagtial | Jagtial | ||
434 | 4214 | Telangana | Jangaon | Jangaon | ||
435 | 4215 | Telangana | Bhadradri Kothagudem | Kothagudem | ||
436 | 4216 | Telangana | Mahabubabad | Mahabubabad | ||
437 | 4217 | Telangana | Mancherial | Mancherial | ||
438 | 4218 | Telangana | Medak | Medak | ||
439 | 4219 | Telangana | Medchal | Medchal | ||
440 | 4220 | Telangana | Nalgonda | Nalgonda | ||
441 | 4221 | Telangana | Nizamabad | Nizamabad | ||
442 | 4222 | Telangana | Siddipet | Siddipet | ||
443 | 4223 | Telangana | Suryapet | Suryapet | ||
444 | 4224 | Telangana | Vikarabad | Vikarabad |
445 | 4201 | Telangana | Ranga Reddy | Hyderabad/Secunderabad | ||
446 | 4202 | Telangana | Karimnagar | Karimnagar | ||
447 | 4203 | Telangana | Khammam | Khammam | ||
448 | 4204 | Telangana | Ranga Reddy | Ranga Reddy | ||
449 | 4205 | Telangana | Warangal (Rural) | Warangal | ||
450 | 4206 | Telangana | Sangareddy | Sangareddy | ||
451 | 4207 | Telangana | Mahbubnagar | Mahbubnagar | ||
452 | 4208 | Telangana | Hayathnagar | Hayathnagar | ||
453 | 4302 | Tripura | Dhalai | Dhalai | ||
454 | 4301 | Tripura | West Tripura | Agartala | ||
455 | 4417 | Uttar Pradesh | Ambedkar Nagar | Ambedkar Nagar | ||
456 | 4418 | Uttar Pradesh | Amethi | Amethi | ||
457 | 4419 | Uttar Pradesh | Azamgarh | Azamgarh | ||
458 | 4420 | Uttar Pradesh | Sambhal | Bahjoi | ||
459 | 4421 | Uttar Pradesh | Bahraich | Bahraich | ||
460 | 4422 | Uttar Pradesh | Ballia | Ballia | ||
461 | 4423 | Uttar Pradesh | Balrampur | Balrampur | ||
462 | 4424 | Uttar Pradesh | Banda | Banda | ||
463 | 4425 | Uttar Pradesh | Barabanki | Barabanki | ||
464 | 4426 | Uttar Pradesh | Basti | Basti | ||
465 | 4427 | Uttar Pradesh | Bijnor | Bijnor | ||
466 | 4428 | Uttar Pradesh | Budaun | Budaun | ||
467 | 4429 | Uttar Pradesh | Bulandshahr | Bulandshahr | ||
468 | 4430 | Uttar Pradesh | Chandauli | Chandauli | ||
469 | 4431 | Uttar Pradesh | Chitrakoot | Chitrakoot | ||
470 | 4432 | Uttar Pradesh | Deoria | Deoria | ||
471 | 4433 | Uttar Pradesh | Etawah | Etawah | ||
472 | 4434 | Uttar Pradesh | Firozabad | Firozabad | ||
473 | 4435 | Uttar Pradesh | Ghazipur | Ghazipur | ||
474 | 4436 | Uttar Pradesh | Gonda | Gonda | ||
475 | 4437 | Uttar Pradesh | Hapur (Panchsheel Nagar) | Hapur (Panchsheel Nagar) | ||
476 | 4438 | Uttar Pradesh | Hardoi | Hardoi | ||
477 | 4439 | Uttar Pradesh | Hathras | Hathras | ||
478 | 4440 | Uttar Pradesh | Jalaun | Jalaun (Orai) | ||
479 | 4441 | Uttar Pradesh | Jaunpur | Jaunpur | ||
480 | 4442 | Uttar Pradesh | Kaushambi | Kaushambi | ||
481 | 4443 | Uttar Pradesh | Kushinagar | Kushinagar | ||
482 | 4444 | Uttar Pradesh | Lakhimpur Kheri | Lakhinpur Kheri | ||
483 | 4445 | Uttar Pradesh | Lalitpur | Lalitpur | ||
484 | 4446 | Uttar Pradesh | Mainpuri | Mainpuri | ||
485 | 4447 | Uttar Pradesh | Mau | Mau | ||
486 | 4448 | Uttar Pradesh | Mirzapur | Mirzapur | ||
487 | 4449 | Uttar Pradesh | Moradabad | Moradabad | ||
488 | 4450 | Uttar Pradesh | Muzaffarnagar | Muzaffarnagar | ||
489 | 4451 | Uttar Pradesh | Siddharthnagar | Naugarh |
490 | 4452 | Uttar Pradesh | Pratapgarh | Pratapgarh | ||
491 | 4453 | Uttar Pradesh | Rai Bareilly | Rai Bareilly | ||
492 | 4454 | Uttar Pradesh | Rampur | Rampur | ||
493 | 4455 | Uttar Pradesh | Saharanpur | Saharanpur | ||
494 | 4456 | Uttar Pradesh | Shahjahanpur | Shahjahanpur | ||
495 | 4457 | Uttar Pradesh | Shravasti | Shravasti | ||
496 | 4458 | Uttar Pradesh | Sonbhadra | Sonbhadra | ||
497 | 4459 | Uttar Pradesh | Sultanpur | Sultanpur | ||
498 | 4460 | Uttar Pradesh | Unnao | Unnao | ||
499 | 4401 | Uttar Pradesh | Agra | Agra | ||
500 | 4402 | Uttar Pradesh | Prayagraj | Allahabad/Prayagraj | ||
501 | 4403 | Uttar Pradesh | Bareilly | Bareilly | ||
502 | 4404 | Uttar Pradesh | Ghaziabad | Ghaziabad | ||
503 | 4405 | Uttar Pradesh | Gorakhpur | Gorakhpur | ||
504 | 4406 | Uttar Pradesh | Jhansi | Jhansi | ||
505 | 4407 | Uttar Pradesh | Kanpur Rural | Kanpur | ||
506 | 4408 | Uttar Pradesh | Lucknow | Lucknow | ||
507 | 4409 | Uttar Pradesh | Meerut | Meerut | ||
508 | 4410 | Uttar Pradesh | Gautam Buddha Nagar | Noida/Greater Noida | ||
509 | 4411 | Uttar Pradesh | Varanasi | Varanasi | ||
510 | 4412 | Uttar Pradesh | Fatehpur | Fatehpur | ||
511 | 4413 | Uttar Pradesh | Mathura | Mathura | ||
512 | 4414 | Uttar Pradesh | Sitapur | Sitapur | ||
513 | 4415 | Uttar Pradesh | Ayodhya | Faizabad | ||
514 | 4416 | Uttar Pradesh | Aligarh | Aligarh | ||
515 | 4504 | Uttarakhand | Almora | Almora | ||
516 | 4505 | Uttarakhand | Haridwar | Haridwar | ||
517 | 4506 | Uttarakhand | Nainital | Nainital | ||
518 | 4507 | Uttarakhand | Tehri Garhwal | New Tehri | ||
519 | 4508 | Uttarakhand | Pantnagar | Pantnagar | ||
520 | 4509 | Uttarakhand | Pauri Garhwal | Pauri Garhwal | ||
521 | 4510 | Uttarakhand | Udham Singh Nagar | Udham Singh Nagar | ||
522 | 4501 | Uttarakhand | Dehradun | Dehradun | ||
523 | 4502 | Uttarakhand | Haldwani | Haldwani | ||
524 | 4503 | Uttarakhand | Roorkee | Roorkee | ||
525 | 4610 | West Bengal | Bankura | Bankura | ||
526 | 4611 | West Bengal | Darjeeling | Darjeeling | ||
527 | 4612 | West Bengal | Jalpaiguri | Jalpaiguri | ||
528 | 4613 | West Bengal | Nadia | Kalyani | ||
529 | 4614 | West Bengal | Malda | Malda | ||
530 | 4615 | West Bengal | Murshidabad | Murshidabad | ||
531 | 4616 | West Bengal | Cooch Behar | Nadia | ||
532 | 4617 | West Bengal | Purba Medinipur | Purba Medinipur | ||
533 | 4618 | West Bengal | South 24 Parganas | South 24 Parganas | ||
534 | 4619 | West Bengal | Birbhum | Suri |
535 | 4601 | West Bengal | North 24 Parganas | North 24 Parganas | ||
536 | 4602 | West Bengal | Paschim Bardhaman | Asansol | ||
537 | 4603 | West Bengal | Purba Bardhaman | Burdwan (Bardhaman) | ||
538 | 4604 | West Bengal | Durgapur | Durgapur | ||
539 | 4605 | West Bengal | Hooghly | Hooghly | ||
540 | 4606 | West Bengal | Howrah | Howrah | ||
541 | 4607 | West Bengal | Paschim Medinipur | Kharagpur | ||
542 | 4608 | West Bengal | Kolkata | Kolkata | ||
543 | 4609 | West Bengal | Siliguri | Siliguri | ||
544 | 9903 | UAE | Abu Dhabi | Abu Dhabi | ||
545 | 9904 | Thailand | Bangkok | Bangkok | ||
546 | 9905 | Sri Lanka | Colombo | Colombo | ||
547 | 9906 | Qatar | Doha | Doha | ||
548 | 9902 | UAE | Dubai | Dubai | ||
549 | 9907 | Nepal | Kathmandu | Kathmandu | ||
550 | 9908 | Malaysia | Kuala Lumpur | Kuala Lumpur | ||
551 | 9901 | Kuwait | Kuwait City | Kuwait City | ||
552 | 9909 | Nigeria | Lagos | Lagos | ||
553 | 9910 | Bahrain | Manama | Manama | ||
554 | 9911 | Oman | Muscat | Muscat | ||
555 | 9912 | Saudi Arabia | Riyadh | Riyadh | ||
556 | 9913 | UAE | Sharjah | Sharjah | ||
557 | 9914 | Singapore | Singapore | Singapore | ||
Note: NTA Reserves The Right To Change Any Of The Above-Mentioned Cities That May Have Been Opted By Any Candidate In His/ Her Online Application Form, At A Later Stage Due To Logistic Reasons And May Allot Another City To Him/Her From His/ Her Choices Of Cities, Given In The Online Application Form. |
Appendix –VII
Graduate Medical Education Regulations
(Amendment), 2019
(Notification No. MCI-34(41)/2019-MED/112862, dated 13th May 2019)
Appendix-VIII
List of Centres for Disability Certificates
(List of Disability Certification Centres who will issue Disability Certificates as per NMC norms to PwD candidates in support of their claim to avail 5% PwD reservation in UG/ Broad Speciality PG Courses)
ppendix-IXA: EWS Certificate Government of ………………………………….
(Name and Address of the authority issuing the certificate)
Income and Asset Certificate to be produced by Economically Weaker Sections
Certificate No. Date:
- This is to certify that Shri/Smt./Kumari son/daughter/wife of permanent resident of Village/Street, Post Office District in the State/Union Territory Pin Code whose photograph in attested below belongs to Economically Weaker Sections, since the gross annual income* of his/her “family”** is below Rs. 8 lakh (Rupees Eight Lakh only) for the financial year 2021-2022. His/her family does not own or possess any of the following assets***:
- 5 acres of agricultural land and above;
- Residential flat of 1000 ft. and above;
- Residential plot of 100 yards and above in notified municipalities;
- Residential plot of 200 yards and above in areas other than the notified municipalities.
- Shri/Smt./Kumari belongs to the caste which is not recognized as a Schedule Caste, Schedule Tribe, and Other Backward Classes (Central List).
Signature with the seal of Officer
Name Designation
Note 1: Income covered from all sources i.e. salary, agricultural, business, profession, etc.
** Note2: The term “Family” for this purpose includes the person, who seeks the benefit of reservation, his/her parents and siblings below the age of 18 years as also his/her spouse and children below the age of 18 years.
*** Note3: The property held by a “Family” in different locations or different places/cities have been clubbed while applying the land or property holding test to determine EWS status.
Appendix –XA: OBC-NCL Certificate Format
FORM OF CERTIFICATE TO BE PRODUCED BY OTHER BACKWARD CLASSES (NCL)* APPLYING FOR ADMISSION TO CENTRAL EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS (CEIS), UNDER THE GOVERNMENT OF INDIA
This is to certify that Shri/Smt./Kum** Son/Daughter** of Shri/Smt.** of Village/ Town**
District/Division** in the State/Union Territory
Belongs to the community that is recognized as a backward class under Government of India***, Ministry of Social
Justice and Empowerment’s Resolution No. dated
**** Shri/Smt./Kum. and/or
his/her family ordinarily reside(s) in the District/Division of the
State/Union Territory. This is also to certify that he/she does NOT belong to the persons/sections (Creamy Layer) mentioned in Column 3 of the Schedule to the Government of India, Department of Personnel & Training O.M. No. 36012/22/93- Estt. (SCT) dated 08/09/93 which is modified vide OM No. 36033/3/2004 Estt. (Res.) dated 09/03/2004, further modified vide OM No. 36033/3/2004-Estt. (Res.) dated 14/10/2008, again further modified vide OM No.36036/2/2013- Estt (Res) dated. 30/05/2014, and again further modified vide OM No. 36033/1/2013-Estt (Res) dated. 13/09/2017.
District Magistrate / Deputy Commissioner /
Any other Competent Authority
Dated: Seal:
* Visit http://www.ncbc.nic.in for the latest guidelines and updates on the Central List of State-wise OBCs.
** Please delete the word(s) which are not applicable.
*** As listed in the Annexure (for FORM-OBC-NCL)
**** The authority issuing the certificate needs to mention the details of the Resolution of the Government of India, in
which the caste of the candidate is mentioned as OBC.
NOTE:
- The term ‘Ordinarily resides’ used here will have the same meaning as in Section 20 of the Representation of the People Act,
- The authorities competent to issue Caste Certificates are indicated below:
- District Magistrate/ Additional Magistrate/ Collector/ Deputy Commissioner/ Additional Deputy Commissioner/ Deputy Collector/ Ist Class Stipendiary Magistrate/ Sub-Divisional magistrate/ Taluka Magistrate/ Executive Magistrate/ Extra Assistant Commissioner (not below the rank of Ist Class Stipendiary Magistrate).
- Chief Presidency Magistrate / Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate / Presidency Magistrate. Revenue Officer not below the rank of Tehsildar and Sub-Divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and/or his family resides
ANNEXURE for FORM-OBC-NCL | ||||
Sl. No. | Resolution No. | Date of Notification | ||
1 | No.12011/68/93-BCC(C) | 13.09.1993 | ||
2 | No.12011/9/94-BCC | 19.10.1994 | ||
3 | No.12011/7/95-BCC | 24.05.1995 | ||
4 | No.12011/96/94-BCC | 09.03.1996 | ||
5 | No.12011/44/96-BCC | 11.12.1996 | ||
6 | No.12011/13/97-BCC | 03.12.1997 | ||
7 | No.12011/99/94-BCC | 11.12.1997 | ||
8 | No.12011/68/98-BCC | 27.10.1999 | ||
9 | No.12011/88/98-BCC | 06.12.1999 | ||
10 | No.12011/36/99-BCC | 04.04.2000 | ||
11 | No.12011/44/99-BCC | 21.09.2000 | ||
12 | No.12015/9/2000-BCC | 06.09.2001 | ||
13 | No.12011/1/2001-BCC | 19.06.2003 | ||
14 | No.12011/4/2002-BCC | 13.01.2004 | ||
15 | No.12011/9/2004-BCC | 16.01.2006 | ||
16 | No.12011/14/2004-BCC | 12.03.2007 | ||
17 | No.12011/16/2007-BCC | 12.10.2007 | ||
18 | No.12019/6/2005-BCC | 30.07.2010 | ||
19 | No. 12015/2/2007-BCC | 18.08.2010 | ||
20 | No.12015/15/2008-BCC | 16.06.2011 | ||
21 | No.12015/13/2010-BC-II | 08.12.2011 | ||
22 | No.12015/5/2011-BC-II | 17.02.2014 |
Appendix – XB: Declaration by the Candidate in lieu of OBC-NCL Certificate
|
Name of the candidate:
_
Address:
_
Application Number of NEET (UG) – 2022:
Mobile No: Email:
I understand that as per the new guideline from the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, GoI, I am required to submit the OBC-NCL certificate issued on or after 1 January 2022.
Since I have not been able to collect the said certificate on time, I may kindly be allowed to write NEET (UG) – 2022 provisionally. I hereby declare that I will upload a fresh certificate (issued on or after 1 January 2022) at the time of reporting after seat allocation.
I understand that inability to upload the same by the given date and time will lead to the withdrawal of the OBC-NCL benefit. I also understand that, if qualified, my category will be adjusted accordingly in the Common Rank List.
Signature of Father/Mother
Name: Date:
Signature of Applicant Date:
Appendix –XI: SC/ST Certificate Format
FORM OF CERTIFICATE TO BE PRODUCED BY SCHEDULED CASTES (SC) AND SCHEDULED TRIBES (ST) CANDIDATES
- This is to certify that Shri/ Shrimati/ Kumari* son/daughter* of
of
Village/Town* District/Division*
of State/Union Territory*
belongs to the Scheduled Caste / Scheduled Tribe* under :-
- The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950
- The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order, 1950
- The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) (Union Territories) Order, 1951
- The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) (Union Territories) Order, 1951
[As amended by the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Lists (Modification Order) 1956, the Bombay Reorganisation Act, 1960, the Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966, the State of Himachal Pradesh Act, 1970, the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971, the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Orders (Amendment) Act, 1976 and the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Orders (Amendment) Act, 2002]
- The Constitution (Jammu and Kashmir) Scheduled Castes Order, 1956;
- The Constitution (Andaman and Nicobar Islands) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1959, as amended by the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Order (Amendment) Act, 1976;
- The Constitution (Dadra and Nagar Haveli) Scheduled Castes Order, 1962;
- The Constitution (Dadra and Nagar Haveli) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1962;
- The Constitution (Pondicherry) Scheduled Castes Order, 1964;
- The Constitution (Uttar Pradesh) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1967;
- The Constitution (Goa, Daman, and Diu) Scheduled Castes Order, 1968;
- The Constitution (Goa, Daman, and Diu) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1968;
- The Constitution (Nagaland) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1970;
- The Constitution (Sikkim) Scheduled Castes Order, 1978;
- The Constitution (Sikkim) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1978;
- The Constitution (Jammu and Kashmir) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1989;
- The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order (Amendment) Act, 1990;
- The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Amendment) Act, 1991;
- The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Second Amendment) Act,
- # This certificate is issued on the basis of the Scheduled Castes / Scheduled Tribes* Certificate issued to Shri /Shrimati* father/mother* of Shri /Shrimati /Kumari*
of Village/Town* in District/Division* of the State State/Union
Territory* who belong to the Caste / Tribe*
which is recognized as a Scheduled Caste / Scheduled Tribe* in the State / Union Territory*
issued by the dated .
- Shri/ Shrimati/ Kumari * and / or* his /
her* family ordinarily reside(s)** in Village/Town* of District/Division* of the State Union Territory* of .
Signature: Designation:
(With seal of the Office)
Place: State/Union Territory* Date:
- Please delete the word(s) which are not
# Applicable in the case of SC/ST Persons who have migrated from another State/UT. IMPORTANT NOTES
The term “ordinarily reside(s)**” used here will have the same meaning as in Section 20 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950. Officers competent to issue Caste/Tribe certificates:
- District Magistrate / Additional District Magistrate / Collector / Deputy Commissioner / Additional Deputy Commissioner / Deputy Collector / Ist Class Stipendiary Magistrate / City Magistrate / Sub-Divisional Magistrate / Taluka Magistrate / Executive Magistrate / Extra Assistant
- Chief Presidency Magistrate / Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate / Presidency
- Revenue Officers not below the rank of
- Sub-divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and/ or his family normally reside(s).
- Administrator / Secretary to Administrator / Development Officer (Lakshadweep Island).
- Certificate issued by any other Authority will be
Appendix –XII: Form-PwD (II) Disability Certificate
(In cases of amputation or complete permanent paralysis of limbs and in cases of blindness) (NAME AND ADDRESS OF THE MEDICAL AUTHORITY ISSUING THE
CERTIFICATE)
|
(See rule 4)
Certificate No. Date:
This is to certify that I have carefully examined Shri/Smt./Kum.
son/wife/daughter of Shri Date of Birth (DD/MM/YY)
Age years, male/female Registration No.
permanent resident of House No. Ward/Village/ Street_ Post Office District State , whose photograph is affixed above, and am satisfied that:
- he/she is a case of:
- locomotor disability
- blindness
(Please tick as applicable)
- the diagnosis in his/her case is
- He/ She has % (in figure) percent (in words) permanent physical impairment/blindness in relation to his/her (part of body) as per guidelines (to be specified).
- The applicant has submitted the following document as proof of residence:-
Nature of Document | Date of Issue | Details of authority issuing certificate |
(Signature and Seal of Authorised Signatory of notified Medical Authority)
Signature/Thumb impression of the person in whose favour disability certificate is issued.
Appendix –XIII: Form-PwD (III) Disability Certificate (In cases of multiple disabilities)
(NAME AND ADDRESS OF THE MEDICAL AUTHORITY ISSUING THE CERTIFICATE)
Certificate No. Date: This is to certify that I have carefully examined . Shri/Smt./Kum. _ son/ wife/daughter of Shri Date of Birth (DD/MM/YY) Age years,
male/female Registration No.
permanent resident of House No.
Ward/Village/Street Post Office
District whose photograph is affixed above, and are satisfied that:
State ,
- He/she is a Case of Multiple Disability. His/her extent of permanent physical impairment/ disability has been evaluated as per guidelines (to be specified) for the disabilities ticked below, and shown against the relevant disability in the table below:
S. No. | Disability | Affected Part of Body | Diagnosis | Permanent physical impairment/mental disability (in %) |
1 | Locomotor disability | @ | ||
2 | Low vision | # | ||
3 | Blindness | Both Eyes | ||
4 | Hearing impairment | £ | ||
5 | Mental retardation | X | ||
6 | Mental-illness | X |
@ – e.g. Left/Right/both arms/legs # – e.g. Single eye/both eyes
£ – e.g. Left/Right/both ears
- In the light of the above, his/her overall permanent physical impairment as per guidelines (to be specified), is as follows:
In figures: percent
In words: percent
- The above condition is progressive/ non-progressive/ likely to improve/ not likely to
- Reassessment of disability is:
- not necessary Or
- is recommended/after years months, and therefore this certificate shall be valid till (DD/MM/YY)
- The applicant has submitted the following document as proof of residence:
Nature of Document | Date of Issue | Details of authority issuing certificate |
- Signature and seal of the Medical Authority:
Name and Seal of Member | Name of Seal of Member | Name and Seal of the Chairperson |
Signature/Thumb impression of the person in whose favour disability certificate is issued
Appendix –XIV: Form-PwD (IV) Disability Certificate (In cases other than those mentioned in Forms II and III)
(NAME AND ADDRESS OF THE MEDICAL AUTHORITY ISSUING THE CERTIFICATE)
|
(See rule 4)
Certificate No.
This is to certify that I have carefully examined
Date:
Shri/Smt./Kum. son/ wife/daughter of Shri
Date of Birth (DD/MM/YY) Age years,
male/female Registration No. permanent resident of House No.
Ward/Village/Street Post Office District
State , whose photograph is affixed above, and am satisfied that he/she is a case of disability.
- His/her extent of percentage of physical impairment/disability has been evaluated as per guidelines (to be specified) and is shown against the relevant disability in the table below:
S.
No. |
Disability | Diagnosis | Permanent physical impairment / mental disability (in %) |
1 | Locomotors disability | ||
2 | Visual Impairment (blindness / low vision) | ||
3 | Hearing impairment | ||
4 | Speech and language disability | ||
5 | Intellectual disability | ||
6 | Mental-illness | ||
7 | Disability caused due to chronic
neurological conditions and/or blood disorders |
(Please strike out the disabilities which are not applicable.)
- The above condition is progressive/ non-progressive/ likely to improve/ not likely to
- Reassessment of disability is: not necessary Or
- is recommended/after years months, and therefore this certificate shall be valid till (DD/MM/YY)
- The applicant has submitted the following document as proof ofresidence:
Nature of Document | Date of Issue | Details of authority issuing certificate |
Appendix –XV: Form-DYSLEXIC-1- Format of Medical Certificate/Report to be produced by Dyslexic Candidate
{To be obtained from any Government or Government approved Learning Disability Clinic/Neurodevelopmental Centre/Dyslexia Association}
Date:
PSYCHO-EDUCATION EVALUATION REPORT
|
Name of the candidate:
Date of Birth:
Candidate
Registration in the Dyslexia Assn. (date / number):
Name of the Father/Mother/Guardian: | ||
Name/address and Regn. No. : of the Dyslexia Association | ||
Physical & Neurologic Assessment: | [ | ] |
Psychological Assessment: | [ | ] |
WISC Verbal IQ: | ||
Performance IQ: | ||
Full-Scale IQ: | ||
Interpretation: | [ | ] |
Educational Assessment: | [ | ] |
Certified that:
- The condition of handicap is: MILD / MODERATE / SEVERE (tick whichever is applicable)*.
- The disability is PERMANENT in nature and DETAILED REPORTS OF DYSLEXIA ASSESSMENT ARE ATTACHED WITH THIS FORM (IN ORIGINAL).
*Learning Disability is a permanent developmental disorder. Currently, there are no standard approved methods to quantify the disorder. However, the method of diagnosis is based on significant impairment in academic achievement. To avail the benefit of relaxed norm under the PwD category, the candidate must come under the SEVERE category.
Signature and Name (in CAPITAL LETTERS) of the certifying official: Seal:
Appendix –XVI: FORM-DYSLEXIC-2*-Certificate to be produced by Dyslexic Candidate from the Principal of the School/College last attended
Testimonial Date: |
|||
Name of the candidate: | Passport | ||
size Photog
of t Candi |
raph he date | ||
Date of Birth:
Name and Address of the School/College: Certified that Shri/Smt/Kum son/daughter of of village/town passed his/her Class 12 from this school and as per records, availed concession under dyslexiccategory. Signature with a seal: * A candidate passing Class 12 or equivalent through the open school system or in private mode may submit the certificate to this effect from the competent authority in the board certifying the concessions availed under dyslexia. |
Appendix -XVII : List of Codes of Class 12 Education Boards | |||
CLASS XII EDUCATION BOARDS/ COUNCILS | CODE | ||
COUNCIL FOR THE INDIAN SCHOOL CERTIFICATE EXAMINATIONS | 01 | ||
NATIONAL INSTITUTE OF OPEN SCHOOLING | 02 | ||
CENTRAL BOARD OF SECONDARY EDUCATION | 03 | ||
ANDHRA PRADESH BOARD OF INTERMEDIATE EDUCATION EXAM | 04 | ||
ANDHRA PRADESH BOARD OF EDUCATION (APBE). | 05 | ||
A.P. OPEN SCHOOL SOCIETY | 06 | ||
ASSAM HIGHER SECONDARY EDUCATION COUNCIL | 07 | ||
BIHAR INTERMEDIATE EDUCATION COUNCIL | 08 | ||
BIHAR BOARD OF OPEN SCHOOLING & EXAMINATION | 09 | ||
CHATTISGARH BOARD OF SECONDARY EDUCATION | 10 | ||
CHATTISGAR STATE OPEN SCHOOL | 11 | ||
DELHI STATE OPEN SCHOOL | 12 | ||
GOA BOARD OF SECONDARY AND HIGHER SECONDARY EDUCATION | 13 | ||
GUJARAT SECONDARY AND HIGHER SECONDARY EDUCATION BOARD | 14 | ||
HIMACHAL PRADESH BOARD OF SCHOOL EDUCATION | 15 | ||
BOARD OF SCHOOL EDUCATION HARYANA | 16 | ||
JHARKHAND ACADEMIC COUNCIL | 17 | ||
JAMMU & KASHMIR BOARD OF SCHOOL EDUCATION | 18 | ||
JAMMU AND KASHMIR STATE OPEN SCHOOL | 19 | ||
DEPARTMENT OF PRE-UNIVERSITY EDUCATION, KARNATAKA | 20 | ||
KERALA BOARD OF PUBLIC EXAMINATION | 21 | ||
KERALA DEPARTMENT OF HIGHER EDUCATION (KDHE) | 22 | ||
MEGHALAYA BOARD OF SCHOOL EDUCATION | 23 | ||
MAHARASHTRA STATE BOARD OF SECONDARY AND HIGHER SECONDARY EDUCATION | 24 | ||
COUNCIL OF HIGHER SECONDARY EDUCATION, MANIPUR | 25 | ||
BOARD OF SECONDARY EDUCATION, MADHYA PRADESH | 26 | ||
MADHYA PRADESH STATE OPEN SCHOOL EDUCATION BOARD | 27 | ||
MIZORAM BOARD OF SCHOOL EDUCATION | 28 | ||
NAGALAND BOARD OF SCHOOL EDUCATION | 29 | ||
COUNCIL OF HIGHER SECONDARY EDUCATION, ODISHA | 30 | ||
PUNJAB SCHOOL EDUCATION BOARD (PSEB) | 31 | ||
RAJASTHAN STATE OPEN SCHOOL, JAIPUR | 32 | ||
BOARD OF SECONDARY EDUCATION RAJASTHAN | 33 | ||
TELANGANA STATE BOARD OF INTERMEDIATE EDUCATION (TSBIE) | 34 | ||
TELANGANA OPEN SCHOOL SOCIETY | 35 | ||
STATE BOARD OF SCHOOL EXAMINATIONS (SEC.) & BOARD OF HIGHER SECONDARY EXAMINATIONS, TAMIL NADU | 36 | ||
TRIPURA BOARD OF SECONDARY EDUCATION | 37 | ||
ALIGARH MUSLIM UNIVERSITY BOARD OF SECONDARY & SR. SECONDARY EDUCATION | 38 | ||
BOARD OF HIGH SCHOOL & INTERMEDIATE EDUCATION, UP | 39 | ||
BOARD OF SCHOOL EDUCATION UTTRAKHAND | 40 | ||
WEST BENGAL BOARD OF SECONDARY EDUCATION | 41 | ||
WEST BENGAL COUNCIL OF HIGHER SECONDARY EDUCATION | 42 | ||
THE WEST BENGAL COUNCIL OF RABINDRA OPEN SCHOOLING | 43 |
Appendix –XVIII: List of Code of Occupation, Qualification & Income (For Father’s/ Guardian’s/ Mother’s) of NEET (UG) – 2022
List of Code of Occupation | List of Code of Income | |||||||||
Occupation | Code | Income | Code | |||||||
Agriculture | 01 | |||||||||
Upto Rs. 50000 | 01 | |||||||||
Business | 02 | |||||||||
Rs.50001 – 1,00,000 | 02 | |||||||||
Medical | 03 | |||||||||
Engineering | 04 | Rs.100001 – 200000 | 03 | |||||||
Law practice | 05 | |||||||||
Rs. 200001 – 500000 | 04 | |||||||||
Government service | 06 | |||||||||
Public sector service | 07 | Rs. 500001 – 650000 | 05 | |||||||
Private service | 08 | |||||||||
Rs. 650001 – 800000 | 06 | |||||||||
Teaching/research | 09 | |||||||||
Rs. 800001 and above | 07 | |||||||||
Other(including housewife) | 10 | |||||||||
List of Code of Qualification | List of Category | |||||||||
Qualification | Code | Code Name
1 SC 2 ST 3 OBC-NCL 4 GEN-EWS 5 GENERAL |
||||||||
Illiterate | 01 | |||||||||
Below class X | 02 | |||||||||
Class X and class XII | 03 | |||||||||
Diploma in Engineering | 04 | |||||||||
Graduate – BA/BSc/BCom/BCA | 05 | |||||||||
Engineering Graduate – BE/BTech/BSc(Engg) | 06 | |||||||||
Medicine Graduate – MBBS/BDS/BAMS/BSMS/BUMS/BHMS/BUMS/BVSc | 07 | |||||||||
Law Graduate – LLB | 08 | |||||||||
Post graduate – MA/MSc/MCom/MCA | 09 | |||||||||
Engineering Post Graduate – ME/MTech/MSc(Tech) | 10 | |||||||||
Medical Post Graduate – MD/MS/MVSc | 11 | |||||||||
Law Post Graduate – LLM | 12 | |||||||||
MBA/CA/ICWA | 13 | |||||||||
PhD/DPhil/DSc/DM | 14 | |||||||||
Appendix – XIX: Affidavit for Single Girl Child
Must Be on Rs. 50/- Stamp Paper
I (father/mother of candidate) son/wife of resident of do hereby make oath and state as under:-
- That the Deponent is the father/mother of (candidate name) an applicant of NEET (UG)-2022 vide Application no. , Roll no.
That the deponent’s daughter is a Single Girl Child/Twin Daughter/Fraternal Daughter of the family and there is no other male and female child in my
Verified at (place) on this (date-month- year) that the contents of the above affidavit are true and correct to my personal knowledge and belief.
DEPONENT SIGNATURE ………………………………
NAME …………………………………………………………
FULL ADDRESS …………………………………………….
…..……………………………………………………………….
…..……………………………………………………………….
Seal & Signature of ……………………………..
SDM/First Class Magistrate/Gazetted Officer (not below the rank of Tehsildar) Certifying the aforesaid declaration.
Date: ……………………….
Appendix – XX: Self-Declaration by Minority Community Candidate for support from Government Scheme
Declaration
I, ………………………… Son/Daughter of …………………………………………………… A resident of
…………………………………………. hereby declare that I belong to the (Muslims/Sikhs/Christian/Buddhists/Jains and Zoroastrians (Parsis) which is a notified minority community as per Section 2 (c) of the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992).
Date: …………………………….
Place: ……………………………
Signature of Candidate: …….……………………………………….
Name of the Candidate: ……….……..……………………………..
Application no. of NEET (UG) 2022: ………..…………………….
Roll no. of NEET (UG) 2022: ……….……..………………………..
Appendix-XXI A: Embassy Certificate of Foreign Candidate (For NRI Candidates)
(ON THE LETTERHEAD OF THE CONCERNED INDIAN DIPLOMATIC MISSION)
|
- No. :
TO WHOMSOEVER IT MAY CONCERN
This is to certify that Mr. /Mrs. / Ms. S/o / W/o / D/o
holder of Passport No. issued on at
valid upto presently residing at
has stayed abroad for more than 182 days during the last financial year and enjoys the status of Non-Resident Indian (NRI) for the period from
till date. He may be extended all courtesies and facilities, as admissible to the Non-Resident Indians (NRIs).
This certificate is issued for his Son/ Daughter/ Daughter-in-Law/ Spouse , for seeking admission in India under NRI Quota.
The validity of this Certificate is for six months only.
PLACE: DATE : | SIGNATURE :
NAME : DESIGNATION: SEAL :
(OF THE ISSUING AUTHORITY) |
Appendix-XXII: Procedure for Online Payment of Fee and Helpline for Payment Related Queries
After completing Step 2 of the Online Application Form, the candidate may remit the examination fee (Step 3)
in the following manner:
- Check the validity of the Debit/ Credit Card and keep it ready with you while logging on to the website for submitting Application Form. The candidates should enter the information asked for and make payment through a Debit/ Credit
- Through Net Banking, check the balance in your account and keep all credentials ready with you while logging on to the website for making payment. The candidates should log in with his/her credentials of net banking and make payments accordingly.
- For payment through a UPI Service, check whether there is a requisite balance in the Bank Account / Wallet to which the concerned UPI is
- For payment through Paytm, check whether there is a requisite balance in the Account / Wallet to which it is linked.
Prescribed Examination Fee (please see the Information at a Glance) can be paid through any Bank/Payment Gateway in any Payment Mode [service/processing charges per transaction and GST applicable thereon @ 18 % are to be borne by the candidate
S.N
o |
Mode of Payme nt | ICICI BANK | HDFC BANK | CANARA BANK | STATE BANK OF INDIA | PAYTM | |||||||
1 | Net Banki ng | ICICI | NIL Charge | HDFC | NIL Charge | Canara Bank | NIL
Char ge |
SBI | ₹ 5.00+GS T | ₹ 4 +GST | |||
Other Banks | 4.00 + GST | Other Banks | 4.00 + GST | Other Banks | 5.00
+ GST |
Other Banks | |||||||
2 | All Debit Card | ICICI or
Other Banks |
Transact ion up to
₹ 2000/- |
0
% |
HDFC or Other Banks | Transact ion up to
₹ 2000/- |
0
% |
Canara Bank or Other Banks | Nil Char ge | Nil | Transact ion up to
₹ 2000/- |
Transacti on upto
₹ 2000/- |
Only Rupay card, no
charge. |
Transact ion above
₹ 2000/- |
0%
+ GS T |
Transact ion above
₹ 2000/- |
0
% |
Transact ion above
₹ 2000/- |
Transacti on above
₹ 2000/- |
Only Rupay
card, no charge. |
|||||||
3 | Credit Card | Domestic | 0.40%of
Transaction value |
Domestic | 0.40% of Fee
+ GST |
Domestic | 0.80
% of Fee + GST |
Domestic | 0.80%
of Fee+ GST (Minimu m Rs 11/-) |
Domestic | 0.8% + GST | ||
Internatio nal | 2.35%of
Transaction value |
Internatio nal | Nil Charge | Internatio nal | 2.35
% of Fee+ GST |
Internatio nal | 3.50%
of Fee+ GST (Minimu m Rs 11/-) |
Internatio nal | 3.5% + GST | ||||
4 | Unifie d Payme nt Interfa ce (UPI) | ICICI or
other banks |
Transact ion up to
₹ 2000/- |
0
% |
Nil Charge | Transact ion up to
₹ 2000/- |
Transacti on up to
₹ 2000/- |
0 % | |||||
Transact ion above
₹ 2000/- |
0
% + GS T |
Transact ion above
₹ 2000/- |
Transacti on above
₹ 2000/- |
0 % | |||||||||
PAYTM
Wallet Paytm postpaid (Apply now, Pay later) |
1.10%+G ST 1.50% + GST |
Note: In case, the fee payment status is not ‘OK’, or the Confirmation Page of the Online Application is not generated after fee payment (completion of Step 3) the candidate is advised to contact the helpline number/email of the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway Integrator, as mentioned below:-
- If Paying through State Bank of India (SBI):
Level | Name | Email ID | Contact Number |
1 | Helpdesk | dgmcs.cc@sbi.co.in | 18004253800 |
2 | Helpdesk3 | sbi.05222@sbi.co.in | 08026599990 |
3 | Customer Care | agmcustomer.Ihodel@sbi.co.in | 1800112211 |
4 | Through SMS | UNHAPPY (add text) | 8008202020 |
- If Paying through Canara Bank:
Leve
l |
Name | Email ID | Contact Number | ||
1 | Helpdesk | pgsupport@billdesk.com/dssronoida@canarabank.co m/ cb18688@canarabank.com | (022)61060524/ 8700098336/7428206788/
9535293631 |
||
2 | Complaint Managemen t Services | pgsupport@billdesk.com/dssronoida@canarabank.co m/ cb18688@canarabank.com | (022)61060524/ 8700098336/ 7428206788/
9535293631 |
||
3 | Customer Care | pgsupport@billdesk.com/dssronoida@canarabank.co m/ cb18688@canarabank.com | 022)61060524/
8700098336/ 7428206788/ 9535293631 |
||
4 | Through
SMS |
(022)61060524/8700098336
/ 7428206788/ 9535293631 |
- If Paying through HDFC Bank:
Level | Name | Email ID | Contact Number |
1 | Vikram Singh | vikram.singh4@hdfcbank.com | 9799810080 |
2. | Amit Singh | amit.singh26@hdfcbank.com | 7428869770 |
3 | Ripon Bhattacharjee | ripon.bhattacharjee@hdfcbank.com | 9625031697 |
- If Paying through ICICI Bank:
Level | Name | Email ID | Contact Number |
1 | Vikas Dwivedi | support.nta@ingenico.com | 9599533577 |
2 | Risheb Sharma | risheb.sharma@icicibank.com | 9873919949 |
- If Paying through PAYTM:
Level | Name | Email ID | Contact Number |
1 | Helpdesk | education.support@paytm.com | 9205780645 |
2 | Helpdesk | education.support@paytm.com | 0120-4789526 |
- NTA Helpdesk Contact details (in case the payment related issues are not resolved through the above mentioned Helplines of the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway Integrator):
Email: neet@nta.ac.in
Phone No.: 011-40759000
Appendix-XXIII:Sample of images to upload in Online Application Form
IMAGE SIZE | IMAGE FORMAT | SAMPLE OF IMAGE |
10 KB to 200 KB | JPG | PASSPORT SIZE PHOTOGRAPH |
10 KB to 200 KB | JPG | POSTCARD SIZE PHOTOGRAPH |
10 KB to 200 KB | JPG | Left and Right hand Fingers and Thumb impression |
4 KB to 30 KB | JPG | Signature |
Appendix-XXIV: Replica of Application Form
Neet (UG) – 2022
Login Page:
Instruction Page:
Instruction Page (Continue..)
Registration Page:
Status of successful submission of Registration Page
Status of Application Form
Personal Details Page:
Aadhaar Details:
Apply for & Exam Centre Details:
Qualification Details
Additional Details
Document to be uploaded
Review Page- Online Application Form
Reviw Page- Online Application Form (Continue..)
Verification of Mobile No., and Email Id- Online Application Form
Verification of registered email id
OTP on registered email id
Fee Payment
Confirmation Page
Important Points to Note
Candidates are required to go through the Information Bulletin carefully and acquaint themselves with the following: – |
i. Candidates can apply for NEET (UG) – 2022 “Online” only. No offline application will be entertained.
ii. Information Bulletin can be downloaded from the website www.nta.ac.in/, https://neet.nta.nic.in/ iii. Candidates must retain the following documents with them as reference for future correspondence: a) Printouts of the Confirmation Page of Online Application. b) Proof of fee paid (i.e. Bank transaction details supported by confirmation page). c) At least 4-6 copies of identical passport size and 4-6 postcard size Photographs which were scanned and uploaded on the Online Application. d) Copy of the system generated Self Declaration in respect of candidates from U.T of J&K who have opted for seats under 15% All India Quota. iv. Candidates must ensure that mobile numbers, e-mail ID filled in the Online Application form are their own or their parents only. The NTA will communicate by SMS and/or e-mail on the given mobile number and e-mail ID respectively only. v. The NTA will not be responsible for non-receipt of the latest information due to incorrect mobile number, e-mail ID, and correspondence address filled in the Online Application Form. vi. The fee can be submitted through Online Mode i.e. Debit/ Credit card and Net-banking/UPI using State Bank of India/Syndicate Bank/ICICI Bank/HDFC Bank/Paytm service provider: ● Check the validity of the Debit/ Credit Card and keep it ready with you while logging on to the website for submitting the application form. The candidate should enter the information asked for and make payment through a Debit/ Credit Card. ● For using Net-banking/UPI/Paytm, check the balance in your account and keep all credentials ready with you while logging on to the website for submitting an application form. Candidate should login with his/her credentials of Net-banking and make payment through Net- banking/UPI/Paytm. vii. Final Submission of Online Application will remain incomplete and unsuccessful in case of failure to complete Step 3 of Online Application, i.e., non-payment of fee. Generation of the confirmation page confirms that the Application has been submitted successfully. The Non-generation of confirmation page indicates that the process of payment of the fee has not been completed and thus application has not been submitted successfully. viii. Candidates must preserve the Admit Cards till their admission to Undergraduate Medical Courses. ix. Ensure that correct data is submitted in the online application. Any correction pertaining to the photograph and signature of the candidate will be intimated through e-mail/SMS and the same will be available in the candidate’s login account. Other permissible corrections can also be carried through log-in account only during the schedule fixed for the same. Candidates may ensure clear photographs and signatures are uploaded. Thereafter, no request for correction(s) will be entertained except when the window for correction in all fields opens. x. The eligibility of the candidate will be determined on the last date of submission of the online Application Form. |
- NEET (UG) – 2022 will be held on 17 July 2022 (Sunday).
- NEET (UG) – 2022 will be held in a single stage and would be an objective type
- Indian Nationals, Non-Resident Indians (NRIs), Overseas Citizens of India (OCI)/Foreign Nationals are eligible to appear in NEET (UG) – 2022.
- Only one application should be submitted by a
- Particulars filled in Application Form need to be chosen carefully as options once exercised cannot be changed later including Examination Centre city and Medium of Question Paper except when the window for correction in all fields
- Allotment of Centre is made by computer and there is no human intervention. Under no circumstances, the allotted Centre shall be changed by the NTA.
- The candidates can download Admit Card for the Examination from the website https://neet.nta.nic.in/.
- The candidates can download the Result, Marks cum Rank Sheet from the website https://neet.nta.nic.in/.
- For the latest updates, candidates must regularly visit the website https://neet.nta.nic.in/, MoH&FW.gov.in & www.mcc.nic.in for MBBS/BDS Courses and www.ayush.gov.in & www.aaccc.gov.in for BAMS/BSMS/BUMS/BHMS Courses and the websites of concerned States/Institutions till the completion of the final round of counselling.
- Candidates should fill up the online form and pay the fee well in advance to avoid the last-minute rush on the No request regarding non-submission of application/fee (due to any reason) will be entertained.
- Candidates must note that mere deduction of fee from the bank account is not a proof of fee The payment should be supported by an updated fee in the account of the candidate. The generation of confirmation page is the proof of successful submission of the Application Form.
- The result of the NEET (UG) – 2022 may be utilized by other entities of Central/State Governments for admission purposes in accordance with their rules and in consultation with the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India.
- Indian Citizens/ Overseas Citizens of India intending to pursue MBBS/ BDS from a foreign Medical
/ Dental Institute need to qualify for NEET (UG) – 2022.
Candidates are advised to regularly visit the NTA website for the latest updates. NTA will communicate all instructions through the website only.
National Testing Agency
(An autonomous organization under the Department of
Higher Education, Ministry of Education, Government of India)
Address for Correspondence First Floor, NSIC-MDBP Building,
Okhla Industrial Estate, New Delhi – 110020
Help Line: For Technical support, contact following during working days between 10.00 a.m. and 5.00 p.m.
Helpline Number : 011-40759000 E-mail: neet@nta.ac.in www.nta.ac.in, neet.nta.nic.in
NEET Syllabus
FAQs (Frequently Asked Questions)
1. How many hours should an aspiring NEET study?
Ideally, a candidate requires approximately 12 to 14 hours daily to prepare for this exam. However, you can reduce these hours if you have a well-structured plan beforehand.
2. Is NEET Chemistry easy?
Out of the 180 questions in NEET,45 questions are of Chemistry. Candidates with a good understanding of the topic can easily achieve 100 to 120 marks in the exam. It is, nevertheless, difficult to achieve a score higher than this in NEET Chemistry. To get a higher score, you must understand the subject thoroughly.
3. Is there any change in NEET pattern 2022?
No, there is no change in the NEET syllabus. As per the latest pattern, the exam duration is 200 minutes (3 hours 20 minutes) from 2 PM to 5:20 PM and shall be uniform for all.